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Posted

Hey all, I know Referee Magazine has been wrong many times in the past, but can someone confirm that the answer given in this quiz for OBR is incorrect?

 

3. With R1 on first and R2 second and none out, F1 balks and immediately throws a pitch. B3 hits a fly ball to deep centerfield. F8 makes the catch, but the ball is hit so deep that both runners tag up and advance two bases.

 

a. Legal advance.

b. The ball is dead when F1 balks.

c. R1 may advance no farther than second and R2 may advance no farther than third.

d. B3 is out.

 

Answer given:  3. NFHS (5-1-k); NCAA, pro c, d (NCAA pro 8.05 Pen)

 

In this case, for OBR, you allow the play to continue, but once the ball is caught, time should be called and the balk must be enforced because the BR did not advance on the play.  The balk can only be ignored if all runners, including the BR, advance at least one base.  C seems correct since the result is to enforce the balk, but D is not correct since B3 is not out.  He should return to bat with the same count as before the balk.  Is this right, or have I suffered an aneurysm?

Posted

There is no correct answer given for OBR/NCAA. For OBR/NCAA, the correct answer should read:

 

The play is dead when the BR fly ball is legally caught. R2 and R1 are awarded 3rd, and 2nd on the balk, and the batter returns to bat, with the count as was before the balk occurred, still no outs.

 

Rule 8.05 PENALTY: The ball is dead, and each runner shall advance one base without liability to be put out, unless the batter reaches first on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, in which case the play proceeds without reference to the balk.

Posted

I have C as the only correct answer when enforcing the Balk. Which in this case needs to be enforced.

Posted
I think its a misprint and should be a and d.
The batter can only be out after a balk if he reaches first and is then subsequently ruled out or called out on appeal for missing first. If he doesn't reach base, the balk must be enforced. Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
  • Like 1
Posted

 

I think its a misprint and should be a and d.

The batter can only be out after a balk if he reaches first and is then subsequently ruled out or called out on appeal for missing first. If he doesn't reach base, the balk must be enforced.

 

I know that is the CI criteria. I just found it in the balk penalty too?  thanx

Posted

The 1st question in last month's quiz threw me for a loop also....

 

1. After five warmup throws in the top of first inning, F1 asks for his head coach and athletic trainer because his throwing arm hurts and he says he is unable to pitch. Since he’s also the team’s cleanup hitter, the head coach wants to move F1 to first base and let F3 pitch. The team is using a designated hitter (B10) for F1.

 

Huh? Is he the cleanup hitter or is he being DH'd for? 

  • Like 1
Posted

The 1st question in last month's quiz threw me for a loop also....

 

1. After five warmup throws in the top of first inning, F1 asks for his head coach and athletic trainer because his throwing arm hurts and he says he is unable to pitch. Since he’s also the team’s cleanup hitter, the head coach wants to move F1 to first base and let F3 pitch. The team is using a designated hitter (B10) for F1.

 

Huh? Is he the cleanup hitter or is he being DH'd for? 

Read it as "since he's normally the clean up hitter ...." and see if it makes sense - I don't have the mag here to check.

Posted

 

The 1st question in last month's quiz threw me for a loop also....

 

1. After five warmup throws in the top of first inning, F1 asks for his head coach and athletic trainer because his throwing arm hurts and he says he is unable to pitch. Since he’s also the team’s cleanup hitter, the head coach wants to move F1 to first base and let F3 pitch. The team is using a designated hitter (B10) for F1.

 

Huh? Is he the cleanup hitter or is he being DH'd for? 

Read it as "since he's normally the clean up hitter ...." and see if it makes sense - I don't have the mag here to check.

 

Good call  :clap:

Posted

C gives the right result in this particular case, except that there's no restriction on the number of bases a runner can advance. If the batter had gotten a hit, the runners could have scored and would not have been required to return to their one base award. I'm pretty sure OBR has an example where there's a balk on a pick off attempt and the runner advances 2 bases because if a wild throw. In that case the runner is entitled to that additional base, and is not limited to just the one base because of the balk.

Posted

My initial reaction was the correct answer wasn't listed for OBR. However C is correct when enforcing the balk, it just didn't have all the information. D is wrong for all codes. 

I suspect the second question was misworded. I'm sure they were going for what to do with the DH when you move the F1 to a defensive position. I still read the quizzes, knowing that they do get some wrong, I use it to find the correct ruling. 

Posted

Since we're on the subject ...

R1 no outs. F1 balks (both umpires call it) and delivers the pitch. The result of the pitch is a hit batter. Can the batter be awarded 1st, or does he stay and complete his at bat?

Posted

Since we're on the subject ...

R1 no outs. F1 balks (both umpires call it) and delivers the pitch. The result of the pitch is a hit batter. Can the batter be awarded 1st, or does he stay and complete his at bat?

 

PENALTY: The ball is dead, and each runner shall advance one base without liability

to be put out, unless the batter reaches first on a hit, an error, a base on balls,

a hit batter, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, in which

case the play proceeds without reference to the balk.

Posted
Since we're on the subject ... R1 no outs. F1 balks (both umpires call it) and delivers the pitch. The result of the pitch is a hit batter. Can the batter be awarded 1st, or does he stay and complete his at bat?
Ignore the balk. The batter and R1 both advance as a result of the HBP. Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
Posted

If you had runners @2nd and/or 3rd only. enforce the balk, batter remains at bat

Why? I'm not being disrespectful, I'm merely looking for answers.

Posted

 

If you had runners @2nd and/or 3rd only. enforce the balk, batter remains at bat

Why? I'm not being disrespectful, I'm merely looking for answers.

 

Because without a runner on 1st, the HBP, (or walk) doesn't move all the runners one base. The conditions for continuing without reference to the balk has not been met. 

  • Like 2
Posted

Richvee is correct, it is the same as having runners on first and third and a balk. Advancing the batter on a  ball four or a HBP only moves R1 so you enforce the balk. 

Posted

FWIW, I posted a comment on the quiz and they emailed me back:

 

Thank you for your comment about the most recent MyReferee baseball quiz. Our baseball editor has updated the quiz to reflect the right answer. As a result, we have deleted your comment to avoid confusion. We appreciate you contacting us. Thanks for reading MyReferee!
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