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Bunt Attempt? Then Foul?
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Question
Curtis Kent
Fed rules, 0-2 count. A batter squares to bunt, but the pitch is heading right towards the batter. The batter does not pull the bat back as he is trying to get out of the way, but he clearly is not offering at the pitch so a bunt attempt is not ruled. However, the pitch ends up hitting the bat. Umpire says that since he clearly was not offering a bunt, it was not a bunt attempt and this is just an ordinary foul ball. Therefore, instead of the batter being out because of a bunt foul on 2 strikes, the batter is back up with an 0-2 count. Is this correct?
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maven
I agree with this point. The umpire knew the definition of a bunt, and it sounds as if he judged it correctly. I disagree with this point. The rules aren't written with a priority on "screw-a-t
Senor Azul
Actually, the Federation definition does not use the term intentionally met (OBR and NCAA do use the term in their definition). Here’s the definition that appears in the 2016 rule book: “A bunt
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