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noumpere

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  1. noumpere's post in Force Out was marked as the answer   
    FIFY
  2. noumpere's post in Run scores before ball is thrown to get 3rd out first base was marked as the answer   
    You were told incorrectly (the terminology on "force out at first" not withstanding).  The timing doesn't matter (that's why it's not a time play) -- only the fact that the third out was made by the BR before reaching first.
  3. noumpere's post in Do the runs count? was marked as the answer   
    R1 was forced out for the third out.  No runs can score when the third out is a force out.
  4. noumpere's post in Missed base on early leave was marked as the answer   
    You can't rule on an appeal that's not made (except, I think, in one of the Carolinas).
    The appeal was for leaving early.  Rule on that.  (Safe, since R2 is now back on second).
    Let the defense appeal again for missing third, if they want.
  5. noumpere's post in Runs Scoring was marked as the answer   
    R1 was forced at the time he missed the base, so his appeal out is a force out.  No runs can score when the third out is a force out.
  6. noumpere's post in Interference. Place the runners. was marked as the answer   
    TOP, since BR had not reached first AND there had been no intervening play.  So R3 returns to third.
     
    It's in the "penalty" section right after Interference in the OBR book; I can't c-n-p right now.
  7. noumpere's post in 3rd to 1st was marked as the answer   
    Depends on the rules code and whether F1 "breaks contact" with the rubber as part of the 'Feint to third" part of the move.
    In FED, if F1 breaks contact, the ball need not be thrown to first; If F1 does not break contact, then F1 must throw to first or it's a balk.
    In versions of OBR that allow the move (most do not), the F1 must break contact during the move; any throw or feint to first without breaking contact is a balk.
  8. noumpere's post in dropped third strike was marked as the answer   
    Out.
  9. noumpere's post in Fly out/Tag up does the run score was marked as the answer   
    Yes the run counts.  It's explained in the rule "how a run scores" -- the third out was not a force out, by a preceding runner or by the batter-runner before reaching first.  (It was a non-force appeal out.) So, it's a time play.
     
    5.08 How a Team Scores
    (a) One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to
    and touches first, second, third and home base before three men
    are put out to end the inning.
    EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner ad -
    vances to home base during a play in which the third out
    is made (1) by the batter-runner before he touches first
    base; (2) by any runner being forced out; or (3) by a preceding
    runner who is declared out because he failed to
    touch one of the bases.
    [other approved rulings skipped]
    APPROVED RULING: One out, Jones on third, Smith on
    first, and Brown flies out to right field. Two outs. Jones
    tags up and scores after the catch. Smith attempted to
    return to first but the right fielder’s throw beat him to the
    base. Three outs. But Jones scored before the throw to
    catch Smith reached first base, hence Jones’ run counts.
    It was not a force play.
     
     
  10. noumpere's post in Timing Play or no Timing Play? was marked as the answer   
    A run cannot score when the third out is made by the BR before he reaches first.  No run.
     
    And, there's no "hit (before the throw to first)" because a hit is credited when the batter reaches first.
    And, it's "time play," not "timing play."
  11. noumpere's post in Timing Play or no Timing Play? was marked as the answer   
    A run cannot score when the third out is made by the BR before he reaches first.  No run.
     
    And, there's no "hit (before the throw to first)" because a hit is credited when the batter reaches first.
    And, it's "time play," not "timing play."
  12. noumpere's post in Dropped 3rd Strike was marked as the answer   
    Agreed, but I read the likely play differently.  In my mind's eye, R3 likely was not running on the D3K, so his run should not count either.  Call the BR out, put the runners back, and resume with bases loaded and two outs.
    If R3 was running, I agree he scores.  If R2 was running, he gets third.  If R1 was running, he gets second.  And other combinations if some were running and some weren't.
    So, to get the "right" answer, the OP needs to provide more information -- but we've given him enough to figure it out.
  13. noumpere's post in Base runner hit by ground ball, does the run count? was marked as the answer   
    The ball is dead once R2 is hit by the batted ball.  The rest of the play didn't happen.
     
    Under OBR, it's only a double play if R2's interference was "willful and deliberate with the intent to prevent a double play" (or words to that effect.  That's unlikely, as described, so just return the runners to TOI and continue the inning with two outs.
     
    Under FED, it's a double play if it was "likely" (I think that's the wording).  IF it's a double play, then the inning is over.  Otherwise, same as OBR.
     
  14. noumpere's post in Runner Interference??? was marked as the answer   
    A runner is absolved from unintentional contact with a deflected BALL; he's not absolved from contact with a FIELDER fielding a deflected ball.
     
    Your play should have been Interference.
  15. noumpere's post in Foul or not was marked as the answer   
    The BALL location, and NOT the FIELDER location determines whether the ball is fair or foul.
     
    If the ball had not passed third base, then if the ball was over fair territory when touched, it's fair; if it's over foul territory, it;s foul.
    If the ball passed third, then the location when it passed third is key.
  16. noumpere's post in Foul fly ball dropped by fielder feet in fair territory was marked as the answer   
    It''s the position of the ball that matters, not the feet.
     
    If the ball was over foul territory when it was first touched, it's a foul ball.  If the ball was over fair territory when it was first touched, it's a fair ball.
  17. noumpere's post in Perfect games was marked as the answer   
    From mlb.com:
    Perfect games and No-hitters:
    An official perfect game occurs when a pitcher (or pitchers) retires each batter on the opposing team during the entire course of a game, which consists of at least nine innings. In a perfect game, no batter reaches any base during the course of the game.
  18. noumpere's post in Fair or foul ball was marked as the answer   
    Not that it matters to the call, but the plate is in fair territory..
     
    In this play, the plate is just "part of the ground"."  So, the OP can be rephrased as "the ball hits the ground and rolls fair.  Is this a fair ball?"  The answer becomes obvious.
     
    Is theer any code where the plate is treated differently?  How does this myth that the ball hitting the plate is an immediate foul ball (or anything like that) get started?
  19. noumpere's post in Home run, bases loaded and runner missed third base was marked as the answer   
    R2 was forced to advance to to third so the out is a force out.  No run can score when the third (or advantageous fourth) out is a force out.
  20. noumpere's post in Does the run count was marked as the answer   
    If R1 is tagged BEFORE reaching second, it's a force out and the run does not count.  IF R1 is tagged AFTER reaching and rounding second, it's not a force out and the run counts.
  21. noumpere's post in Walk with bases loaded was marked as the answer   
    Run counts.  All codes.
     
    Here's the OBR:
     
    Rule 5.06(b)(3)(B) Comment: A runner forced to advance
    without liability to be put out may advance past the base to
    which he is entitled only at his peril. If such a runner, forced to
    advance, is put out for the third out before a preceding runner,
    also forced to advance, touches home plate, the run shall score.
    Play. Two out, bases full, batter walks but runner from second
    is overzealous and runs past third base toward home and is
    tagged out on a throw by the catcher. Even though two are out,
    the run would score on the theory that the run was forced home
    by the base on balls and that all the runners needed to do was
    proceed and touch the next base.
  22. noumpere's post in dropped bat in fair territory was marked as the answer   
    Yes.  Sometimes even before it stops rolling (at least in theory).  And it's true whether the bat is in fair or foul territory.
    Yes.  So can the catcher, the umpire, ...
     
  23. noumpere's post in foul out bunt strike 3 was marked as the answer   
    It depends a bit on what you mean by "fouls out."  If you mean the better hit a ball that was foul and not caught, see Lou B's answer.
    If you mean the ball was a "caught foul fly," then I *think* it's scored as a PO for whoever caught the ball.
  24. noumpere's post in Barehanded tag was marked as the answer   
    To the OP:  Note that tagging a RUNNER is different from tagging a BASE.  The former requires tagging with the ball or the hand holding the ball; the latter just requires touching the base with the defender's "person."
  25. noumpere's post in Advancement of Runners was marked as the answer   
    Once the defense tagged second base, R1 was out on the force.  Since R2 is no longer forced, he is safe when tagged while standing on second base.
    Had the defense tagged the runner first, he would be out.  then if the defense stepped on second base, R1 would also be out.
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