3rd to 1st

[Guest turbo]

When attempting the 3rd to 1st pick off move does the ball have to be thrown to 1st base

 

[noumpere]

Depends on the rules code and whether F1 "breaks contact" with the rubber as part of the 'Feint to third" part of the move.

In FED, if F1 breaks contact, the ball need not be thrown to first; If F1 does not break contact, then F1 must throw to first or it's a balk.

In versions of OBR that allow the move (most do not), the F1 must break contact during the move; any throw or feint to first without breaking contact is a balk.

[LRZ]

Guest turbo, the code matters, as noumpere said. Under OBR, if the pitcher has legally disengaged the rubber, he need not throw to first (or third), as he has become an infielder. If, in your scenario, the pitcher has not disengaged, I would balk for feinting to third without a throw, so I would not even reach the question you ask about a feint to first.

OBR, Rule 6.02(a)(2): "The pitcher, while touching his plate, feints a throw to first or third base and fails to complete the throw...."

Rule 6.02(a)(3) Comment: "It is a balk if, with runners on first and third, the pitcher steps toward third and does not throw, merely to bluff the runner back to third; then seeing the runner on first start for second, turn and step toward and throw to first base."

Rule 5.07(3): "If the pitcher removes his pivot foot from contact with the pitcher’s plate by stepping backward with that foot, he thereby becomes an infielder...."

I don't work high school (HS/NFHS/FED), so I may be wrong, but the HS ruling there may be different, as the feint to third is legal, I think. If, in feinting to third, the pitcher disengages then turns to first, that is legal--I think!