maven's post in Runner hit by thrown ball was marked as the answer
Unless the runner did something intentional to get hit, we play on. If the deflected ball goes out of play, all runners are awarded 2 bases from their last legally touched base at the time of the throw (not the time it goes out of play).
maven's post in Runner kicks ball away from fielder was marked as the answer
Interference by a retired/scored runner. The ball is dead, the run counts (had he been ruled safe), and the runner who would have been played on is out.
No. Interference with a thrown ball must be intentional. Play the bounce.
Same rulings, all codes.
maven's post in Interference - Double Play? was marked as the answer
As Larry said, this is a FPSR violation, the penalty for which is that the violating runner is out and the BR is out (if play started with less than 2 outs). Other runners return to their TOP bases.
Note that this is not mere INT: all FPSR violations are INT, but not all INT is a FPSR violation. The difference is important: for regular INT, the BR is not out as an "built-in" part of the penalty, and other runners return to their TOI, not TOP, bases.
maven's post in F6 obstruction or nothing was marked as the answer
Fielders in general are required to stay out runners' way. The only time they always have the right of way is on a batted ball. This play is not a batted ball, so OBS.
Same ruling all codes. I will add that I would wait to judge the OBS: contact alone is nothing. We're looking for hindrance, and the defense gaining an advantage from the contact.
maven's post in sac fly was marked as the answer
A force play occurs when a runner is forced to advance by the batter becoming a runner.
No force play is possible on a caught fly ball.
The play you're asking about is an appeal play. The defense may appeal a runner leaving too early by tagging the runner or the base left too early. This is NOT a force play.
However, according to your account, R2 did NOT leave too early: she left after the fielder touched the ball. In that case, there's no appeal, and she's just a runner off base. To be put out, the runner must be tagged in that case.
maven's post in Balk? was marked as the answer
The second is also not a balk. Provided he comes set legally (codes differ about where the glove may be), he can vary his set each and every pitch of the game.
That he has to "pitch the same way every time" is a standard myth.
Regarding the first move: people remember "may not throw to an unoccupied base" but forget/never knew "except for the purpose of making a play."
Also, as you're learning the balk rules, it's worth remembering what's allowed when F1 is engaged: he may do one of three things (in general),
Pitch to the batter Disengage legally Step and then throw/feint to a base Notice that #2 and #3 are independent: that is, neither one requires the other. Stepping + throwing is legal from the rubber, provided it meets the restrictions on "stepping" and "throwing to a base" (or feinting). One of those concerns unoccupied bases, and that one has the exception already mentioned.
maven's post in Runner interference was marked as the answer
This is runner INT. F4 is protected from OBS because he is fielding a batted ball. When R1 hinders him—even unintentionally, and contact is not necessary—it is INT.
The ball is dead, the runner is out. The BR is awarded 1B, unless R1 intentionally made contact to prevent a double play (the Fed rule is different on this point).
For collisions on the bases during a batted ball, it's always either INT or OBS, never a no-call. You're asking about 9U, so everyone involved is still learning, including the umpires. That's fine: that's a primary goal of instructional baseball.
maven's post in pick off move to first called back was marked as the answer
By rule, once he's properly engaged F1 may legally do only 3 things: pitch to the batter, step and throw/feint to a base, or disengage. And it's illegal to feint to 1B (and, in some codes, 3B).
F1 legally disengages by stepping directly backward and off the rubber with his pivot foot prior to starting the motion to pitch or feinting. Once disengaged, the pitching restrictions (such as those just mentioned) no longer apply.
If your umpire ruled that F1 may never feint to 1B, that would be incorrect. That restriction applies only when F1 is legally engaged with the rubber.
It's also possible that he garbled his explanation. We often see a pitcher disengage improperly, so that it ends up being a jump turn (for instance, if he starts his feint and jumps back at the same time). A jump turn is a move from the rubber, so the restrictions are in effect. Thus, it's a balk to feint to 1B after a jump turn. Possibly, that's what he was trying to explain, and didn't succeed.
maven's post in legal pitch? was marked as the answer
A pitch is a ball thrown to the batter. The pitching position rules dictate how such throws must start (feet, windup pumps, stopping in the set, etc.), but not how they must be delivered (overhand, sidearm, behind the back, etc.).
I don't know what OBL is, but in OBR (pro baseball) and FED (HS baseball), this would be legal (and ineffective).
maven's post in No Call? was marked as the answer
"Doing what they were supposed to do" is not part of any rule.
The only consideration that might make this not runner INT is tangle/untangle, and maybe that's what PU ruled. In view of the BR's delay, we've seen similar plays ruled INT.
I like INT for that reason.
maven's post in NFHS new 2020 DH rule was marked as the answer
Yes. Not only can you do it that way, that's the only way to do it.
Keep it simple: Jones is a sub for Smith in the 2 spot. That's how to report it. Adams is F/DH who changed defensive positions. Legal.
The new rule simply allows coaches to replace a F/DH on defense and keep him in the lineup on offense. Usually, that will be P/DH, but it need not be.
Any player in the lineup may switch defensive positions with another player. That's not a substitution and doesn't affect the DH.
maven's post in ABANDONING BASE was marked as the answer
Yes, there's abandonment. It applies to a runner who has touched 1B and "leaves the base path, obviously abandoning his effort to touch the next base" 5.09(b)(2). FED has the same rule (8-4-2p). The ball remains live, and the runner is out.
Whether your R1 should have been called out is a more complicated issue. If the umpires communicated their ruling adequately, then I suppose they could get 2 outs here (1 for the catch, one for abandonment). But that seems unlikely: had R1 understood that the ball was caught, he would not have abandoned. A BU verbalizing the out call properly would be standing a few feet from R1, who would certainly have heard him yelling "He's OUT! He's OUT! He's STILL OUT!" (after the ball comes out on the transfer).
If the ruling was not communicated properly, then they should put R1 back on 1B.
The probability of the latter ruling being right for any given game is greater than 90%, as a game management point if for no other reason.
There's also a good chance that the original out call was too fast, and that this was not a catch. That would explain why nobody but the umpires thought it was a catch. But that's just speculation, based on observing a lot of amateur umpires rushing their out calls.
maven's post in Pitch Framing was marked as the answer
Framing and pulling are different.
Framing is positioning the glove to highlight the "strike-ishness" of the pitch. Catch the breaking pitch closer to the plate, set up on the outside corner instead of diving across the plate to catch that pitch on the black. These are not deceptive, so umpires aren't "duped" by them. Indeed, proper catching technique requires framing.
Pulling a pitch is moving the glove back into the zone after receiving a pitch not in it. I warn catchers that pulling pitches tells everyone that they think the pitch was a ball, and that I plan to defer to their judgment on those pitches. If they hold it still, there's a better chance that they'll get the pitch on the black.
Have I been duped? Probably, but not often I hope, and compared to the pros I'm not that good.
maven's post in DH Re-Entry was marked as the answer
Correct. But this is not re-entry for Jones, as he has not been out of the game yet. Smith is now out of the game.
Incorrect description: Jones is in the game in the 4 spot and when he bats that is not re-entry, nor is he batting for Smith. When the role of the DH ended, Jones had sole possession of the 4 spot and bats for himself.
This is Smith's re-entry and is legal. Smith now occupies the 4 spot and Jones is out of the game (his, Jones's, re-entry is intact).
You lost me. Smith was still DH when he reached base; Jones came in to run for him, and that act eliminated the role of DH and sent Smith out of the game.
The way we teach the FED DH is to think in terms of the lineup. Ordinarily, the offensive and defensive roles of each lineup spot are occupied by the same person: they play in the field, then they bat. But the DH splits the roles: one player in the field, the other plays offense. When either one does the other's job, then the role of the DH ends.
In your situation, Smith was the offensive player, and Jones defensive. Jones ended the role of the DH when he did the other guy's job and played on offense (ran for Smith). At that point, he has sole possession of the 4th lineup spot and had to play both roles.
The other piece that confuses people is re-entry: both players are starters and have re-entry. They're not out of the game until subbed for or the role of the DH ends, and are then eligible to enter in the same lineup spot for the other player.
maven's post in Is This a Hit By Pitch was marked as the answer
That rule applies to judging the status of the ball when it leaves the field. It's a pitched ball until one of those things occurs. After that, it's a batted or thrown ball (if live) or dead.
It's a mistake to apply that to HBP. Would you allow the batter to go over and hit the 'pitch' rolling down the 3BL? If not, then don't rule the carom a HBP.
maven's post in Continuation was marked as the answer
Disengaging is irrelevant. After a foul ball, all runners must return to the bases they occupied at the time of the pitch.
The time of pitch is defined by rule as (for the windup) the moment F1 began his motion to pitch. Usually, that's a rocker step with the free foot. Unless R1 was standing on 2B when the pitch started, he'd have to return to 1B after the foul ball.
Same ruling all codes.
None of this has anything to do with disengaging, which does not force runners to return (unless you have some league-specific rule, in which case you'd need to consult those). Of course, had F1 disengaged and reengaged prior to pitching, now likely you'd have R2 instead of R1...
maven's post in interference was marked as the answer
The ball is dead immediately, and R1 is out for INT. No play on the BR is possible (no matter where the fielder threw the dead ball).
Whether the BR is also out will vary by code.
FED: the BR is out if the INT prevented a "possible" double play. As we teach this, we'd call the BR out only if it was a "double play ball" hit fairly hard and more or less right to a fielder.
PRO: the BR is out only if, in the umpire's judgment, R1 "willfully and deliberately" interfered in order to prevent a double play.
If we don't rule the BR out for R1's INT, and that out wasn't the 3rd out of the inning, we'd award the BR 1B.
maven's post in Foul to fair call change was marked as the answer
As you have suggested, when a pitch hits the bat, we have a batted ball, fair or foul TBD. It doesn't matter whether the batter intended to swing.
Unless the game is being played by HS rules, it depends. Under HS rules, the ball is dead immediately, and the umpire will have to eat it.
Under other codes, I would rule in a way that conferred no advantage on either team. If one team played the fair ball and the other team didn't (because of the foul call), I'd kill it and eat the call.
If both teams played the fair ball at about the same time, then I might let it go.
Umpires: slow down. If it's foul, it's foul, and we don't need to rush that call. Wait, process, then make the call.
maven's post in Tag up at 2B or 3B? was marked as the answer
The runner has to retouch all bases back to where he was at the time of pitch (TOP). If he is beyond 3B when the fielder first touches the ball, then he must return and touch 3B, then go back to 2B and retouch (tag up), or be liable to be called out on appeal at any base he fails to retouch.
The TOP is defined as when the pitcher starts his first motion to pitch, which in your play would be the start of the "long windup" to which you refer. Almost certainly, your stealing runner took off during the start of that long windup, so he had not acquired 3B before the motion to pitch began. He must therefore retouch 2B.
The time the pitched ball crossed the plate is not relevant to any rule in baseball (except maybe some stealing rules for yoots?).
Except in youth ball, stealing runners never get there before the pitch starts. Even when they do, they don't (IOW, that's not how to teach them).
maven's post in Does the run score was marked as the answer
Yes: if the batter hits a fly ball that can be caught with ordinary effort by an infielder, when 1B and 2B are occupied w/ less than 2 outs.
No: the infield fly rule is specifically in place to prevent infielders from dropping fly balls to create cheap double plays. That's not what happened in your play.