Continuation

[Guest Ernest Lapointe]

Pitcher comes to a wind up position with a runner on first.

Coach yells 'step off'; runner on first advances to 2nd.

Pitcher NEVER disengages from rubber

Pitcher delivers pitch

Batter fouls off pitch

Since, the pitcher NEVER disengaged from rubber -- does the runner have to return to first?

[maven]

4 minutes ago, Guest Ernest Lapointe said:

Since, the pitcher NEVER disengaged from rubber -- does the runner have to return to first?

Disengaging is irrelevant. After a foul ball, all runners must return to the bases they occupied at the time of the pitch.

The time of pitch is defined by rule as (for the windup) the moment F1 began his motion to pitch. Usually, that's a rocker step with the free foot. Unless R1 was standing on 2B when the pitch started, he'd have to return to 1B after the foul ball.

Same ruling all codes.

None of this has anything to do with disengaging, which does not force runners to return (unless you have some league-specific rule, in which case you'd need to consult those). Of course, had F1 disengaged and reengaged prior to pitching, now likely you'd have R2 instead of R1...

[BobUmp]

The way you wrote it, it seems like the pitcher delivered a pitch from windup as second base was stolen. I'm guessing from your info that also means:

1) The pitcher did not balk in any way, and the pitch was a legal pitch from windup

2) There was no delay from the runner taking off and acquiring second and the pitcher starting his pitching moves. If, for instance the runner acquired second, got up if he slid, and maybe even started to take a lead from second before the pitcher started any move, the judgement could be that he stole second before a pitch, and the fouled off pitch was after the stolen base.. The way you wrote it, i am guessing this was NOT the case.. I am guessing this because, in all likelihood, even if the pitcher delayed starting his pitch to process what the coach was yelling and the runner who took off is slowing himself coming into second standing up on an uncontested steal, it would be VERY unusual for the pitcher not to have started his pitch moves before the base was acquired, and, if he did delay so long, it would have been obvious it was a steal first, then a pitch...

If i guessed correctly above, then the runner returns to first after the foul ball. If i did not guess correctly, then the runner has second, either by balk or by acquisition before the pitch.

And, whoa, the batter probably runs laps after the game for being so brain dead as to take a swing on a so clearly swiped base (unless he was protecting on two strikes, of course!)

This would be all rule sets..