Play at first in Cubs-Nationals game

[Gfoley4]

 

should this be one of those plays where the umpire rules safe, then out on an appeal? The last angle shows that Bryant beat the pitcher to the bag (just stepped off to the side to avoid stepping on him) I'm not too familiar with this type of play.

Edited June 5, 2015 by Thunderheads

[tempetoro]

Looks like he beat him to the bag but didn't touch the base.  I think it's a great call!

[maven]

The BR was not past 1B before the fielder tagged the base. The runner's foot was next to the base when F1 tagged it, so the BR had not yet acquired the base.

He's out: no need for a missed base appeal here.

[umpstu]

The BR was not past 1B before the fielder tagged the base. The runner's foot was next to the base when F1 tagged it, so the BR had not yet acquired the base.

He's out: no need for a missed base appeal here.

​

The BR was not past 1B before the fielder tagged the base. The runner's foot was next to the base when F1 tagged it, so the BR had not yet acquired the base.

He's out: no need for a missed base appeal here.

​That sure is a bastard play though. A whacker.

[maven]

A whacker indeed. Was that Drake? He earned his money on that one.

[DVA7130]

Great call!

[Richvee]

Is there any legit argument for obstruction here? BR had to hurdle F1's legs, possibly causing BR to miss the bag? 

[Replacematt]

Is there any legit argument for obstruction here? BR had to hurdle F1's legs, possibly causing BR to miss the bag? 

​Where was the ball?

[Richvee]

​Where was the ball?

​In his glove... I understand. That's why I ask can one make a legit argument for OBS even though F1 has the ball? Does the fact that he has the ball excuse him from any OBS? 

[Replacematt]

​In his glove... I understand. That's why I ask can one make a legit argument for OBS even though F1 has the ball? Does the fact that he has the ball excuse him from any OBS? 

A fielder in possession of the ball cannot be guilty of OBS unless he's doing something unsportsmanlike to impede the runner (tripping, holding, high-sticking, etc.)

[Richvee]

A fielder in possession of the ball cannot be guilty of OBS unless he's doing something unsportsmanlike to impede the runner (tripping, holding, high-sticking, etc.)

​Ok. That answers my question. So even though F1's legs impeded BR's path to the bag, it's OK because he has the ball and F1 didn't impede him intentionally? 

[ricka56]

​In his glove... I understand. That's why I ask can one make a legit argument for OBS even though F1 has the ball? Does the fact that he has the ball excuse him from any OBS? 

​I think it would be the same as F2 (with the ball) using his legs/shin guards to block the runner from HP. Even though this F1 did it unintentionally, it is still legal.

[noumpere]

​Ok. That answers my question. So even though F1's legs impeded BR's path to the bag, it's OK because he has the ball and F1 didn't impede him intentionally? 

​Correct -- and because F1 was trying to make a play for the base.

 

Now, If F1 knew he was off the base and couldn't get there, and wasn't in a position to tag BR, so stuck his leg out to trip BR to give F1 time to get to the bag, or to make a tag -- then you might have something.  You'll "never" see this.

[johnnyg08]

Great call by Drake!  Nice work.