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Posted

OBR. R1, stealing on the pitch. The pitcher using the set position balks by failing to come to a discernible stop but delivers the pitch. The batter lays down a bunt. F2 fields the batted ball and throws out the batter-runner at 1B. Obviously we have a no-pitch and we will enforce the balk. Because the batter did not achieve 1B, do we kill the play immediately when the out is recorded at 1B, regardless the location of R1? If R1 was already on 3B when the out was recorded, is R1 still returned to 2B?

Posted
1 minute ago, chalen said:

OBR. R1, stealing on the pitch. The pitcher using the set position balks by failing to come to a discernible stop but delivers the pitch. The batter lays down a bunt. F2 fields the batted ball and throws out the batter-runner at 1B. Obviously we have a no-pitch and we will enforce the balk. Because the batter did not achieve 1B, do we kill the play immediately when the out is recorded at 1B, regardless the location of R1? If R1 was already on 3B when the out was recorded, is R1 still returned to 2B?

Yes

Posted

Yes, and...

Umpires will sometimes get talked into giving the offense a "choice" here, especially when the play starts with R2 or R3 and the batter puts the ball in play such that a runs scores.

Whether to enforce or ignore the balk is completely determined by action during play, there is no choice. If the BR and all runners achieve their advance bases, then the balk is ignored. In that case, all action during play stands. Otherwise, it is enforced.

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