chalen

R2 and R3, no outs. R2 interferes with a fielder who is in the act of fielding a batted ball. The ball is dead, the runner is out, and the batter-runner is awarded first base. If R3 scored before the interference, does the run score or is he returned to his time-of-pitch base? a) OBR? b) Little League?

We also "leave live" a balk wild pitch, balk wild throw to a base, balk dropped third strike, balk ball four with runners going or forced. Anything else?

OBR. R1, stealing on the pitch. The pitcher using the set position balks by failing to come to a discernible stop but delivers the pitch. The batter lays down a bunt. F2 fields the batted ball and throws out the batter-runner at 1B. Obviously we have a no-pitch and we will enforce the balk. Because the batter did not achieve 1B, do we kill the play immediately when the out is recorded at 1B, regardless the location of R1? If R1 was already on 3B when the out was recorded, is R1 still returned to 2B?

Thanks, maven! I didn't frame this situation properly for the question I was wondering. But you answered one of my other questions.

Oops, I meant to specify OBR of course. Thanks.

R1 and R2 (on 1B and 2B, of course). The pitcher balks with a feint to 1B, then throws the ball past 1B. R2 scores, but R1 (who dove back to 1B and was slow to advance), is tagged out while attempting to reach 2B. So we enforce the balk. Obviously R1 gets 2B. Is R2 returned to 3B?

Supposedly in NFHS, R1 can still score, after the third out is recorded, according to https://www.closecallsports.com/2016/05/losing-home-run-runner-passing-case.html. In OBR and NCAA, it's a timing play.

R1, two outs. Any rule set. Batter hits a home run just beyond the reach of a leaping F8. R1, thinking the ball may have been caught, freezes halfway to 2B. F8 pretends to remove the ball from his glove and throw to 1B. R1, seeing this, retreats toward 1B, and the batter-runner passes R1. Is the batter-runner out? If so, can R1 still score?

A batted ball deflects off the pitcher and hits the base umpire in the B or C position, in front of the middle infielders. Is this umpire interference?

R2. Any rule set. Pitcher on the rubber in set position, with his free foot one meter in front of the rubber. He lifts his free foot and steps toward 2B, then feints or throws to 2B. My question is HOW FAR must his free foot step? Certainly the foot must clear the footprint of where his foot was when he came set. Can the free foot land IN FRONT of the rubber (i.e., on the home plate side of the rubber)? Would that constitute distance and direction to 2B? Or must the free foot step to, or behind, the pivot foot?

(This was asked on Facebook, but the correct answers are always found here.) Any rule set. R2. Less than two outs. Outfield base hit. R2 is obstructed rounding 3B and the umpire judges R2 will be protected home. R2 is tagged out at the plate while the batter-runner is heading for 2B. Do you kill the play at the time of the apparent out (and award R2 home, and award BR wherever you think he would have achieved without the obstruction), or do you leave the play live and wait for a play at 2B? OBR 6.01(h)(2), "If no play is being made on the obstructed runner, the play shall proceed until no further action is possible." I interpret this to mean that if no play is being made on the obstructed runner AT THE TIME OF THE OBSTRUCTION, let everything play out.

A twist on the hidden ball trick... B1 reaches 1B. The ball remains live as the pitcher and first-baseman confer. The first-baseman goes to the mound and positions himself astride the pitcher's plate, intending to fool the runner that the pitcher is astride the pitcher's plate. The real pitcher, with the ball hidden in his glove, walks to 1B and pretends to be the first-baseman. B1 steps off 1B and is tagged by F1. Balk? Out? "Time! Don't do that again!"? F1 and F3 are identical twins.

Clarification: F8 was still on the field throughout this action.

My partner did put him on 3B. That seemed reasonable at the moment, considering the defense screwed up. But there doesn't seem to be any rule support for this other than the dreaded 9.01(c). Maybe we should have held him at 2B. He would have been safe at 2B without the extra ball.

OBR. No runners. Before the pitch, F8 yells to the dugout that he was paged and has to leave immediately, and begins running off the field. The plate umpire doesn’t realize this, and time is neither requested nor granted. Batter hits a ground ball to F6, who overthrows 1B before the batter runner reaches 1B. The ball rolls toward the 1B dugout, and comes to rest in live ball territory. The batter runner heads for 2B. A defensive substitute planning to take over at centerfield exits the dugout. (Yes, of course they cannot substitute while the ball is live.) He does not realize the live ball is there, and he discards a different ball that he had been carrying, a few feet away from the live ball. The sub intentionally dropped the ball, but not with intent to confuse. F3 runs over and picks up the wrong ball and throws to 2B for a play on the batter runner. In the umpire’s judgement, if the wrong ball not been there and F3 played the correct ball, the batter runner would have been (a) safe at 2B, or (b) out at 2B. Call it! This is similar to intentional interference by an authorized person, in which case the umpire imposes whatever would have happened without the interference--but the sub wasn't authorized to be out of the dugout, and he didn't touch the live ball.

Yes, catsbackr, so what? Same situation one foot in foul territory, ball drops foul but then rolls fair, that is unquestionably an IFF, though arguably it was not "a fair fly ball".

Bases loaded, no outs. Batter pops up high, 30 feet in foul territory, close to the third-base fence. F2 camps under it for what appears will be an easy catch. F5 calls him off and in the confusion, the ball drops in foul territory, hits a rock and deflects sharply toward fair territory, untouched, and comes to rest in fair territory, before passing 3B. Runners hold. F6 picks up the ball, tags R3, steps on 3B, and throws to F4 to force out R1 at 2B. Was this an infield fly or a triple play? OBR identifies an infield fly "a fair fly ball." This is ultimately a fair ball and was once a fly ball, but is it "a fair fly"? Also, the OBR definition of Infield Fly says this scenario is an infield fly if it was a "declared" infield fly, but the umpires would not have declared IFF on a ball that was so far within foul territory. If this is an infield fly, when would you declare it as such?

Thanks, guys, it is clear to me now. I wish the rule was written more clearly. In 3-2-2, PENALTY: The ball is dead at the end of playing action. The involved batter-runner or runner is out and any additional outs made on the play stand. some people interpret those sentences as sequential steps. Better would be: PENALTY: The involved batter-runner or runner is out. The ball is dead at the end of playing action. Any additional outs made on the play stand...

I meant, is there a rule or interpretation I could cite to a coach or protest committee, supporting the fact that the out is immediate? The rule is unclear. Then I found Case Book 3.2.2.B, another base-coach interference example, which states the out is "immediate", so I think that is it. Thanks!

Based on what, johnyg08?

NFHS rules. R1, no outs. The batter hits a towering fly ball to shallow centerfield. R1 stays on 1B. The first-base coach, seeing the full-speed batter-runner might pass R1, reaches out and grabs BR and slows him down. The ball falls uncaught. F8 flips the ball to F6 who steps on the bag for an expected force out. F6 does not tag R1, then R1 slides into 2B. Per 3-3-2, the BR will be out for interference, and there is a delayed dead ball. Any outs made on the play stand, and any runners return to TOI base. So, is the BR's out effective immediately, thereby eliminating the force out at 2B, so R1 will be returned to 1B? Or is the BR's out assessed only after action ends, in which case R1 is forced out?

Wensdelstedt's "online store" has been down for weeks. =/ Take my money! http://www.umpireschool.com/online_store.html

@HWUmpireSchool just tweeted that "the new manuals" will be available at the end of the month.

If the defense refuses to tag BR, BR needs to abandon.

So we're saying any runner forced to advance can trigger the balk retroactively if another runner is put out beyond his awarded base?! Example: R1, R2, balk, pitch is delivered, apparent base hit, R2 thrown out at the plate as R1 is safe at 2B and BR makes the turn at 1B. Couldn't R1 now retouch second and retreat a few steps toward 1B to reinstate his force-out? He is tagged out or abandons, triggering the balk, and putting R2 back to life at 3B? Or, BR could retreat toward home for a similar result? Whatcha got? Maybe travesty of the game? Or call time before the second "out"?