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Couple of questions about a call I had the other night with my 11u team.

1)    I had a balk called on a right handed pitcher when he threw to pick off a runner at first. The umpire claimed that while he did move his right foot first with the “hop” step that I teach, he didn’t have a definite break with the rubber with that foot. I tried to get him to quantify what a definite break was but to no avail. He claimed it had to be a visible step with his “on rubber” foot, but I have yet to find this in the rules. My understanding is that if a right hand pitcher moves his right foot first regardless of the amount, and he completes his throw to first it is NOT a balk.

 

 

2)    Runner on first, right handed pitcher lifts his left (off rubber leg) leg and runner on first takes off on first movement to steal second, Pitcher in one continuous motion does the step over move to second base and throws said runner out.  Umpire calls balk. I have scoured the forums and read the rule and I am still convinced that it is not a balk because it is throwing to a base in making a play. If said runner didn’t run then it would be a balk.

 

Balk Rule 8.05(d) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied

base, except for the purpose of making a play;

Rule 8.05(d) Comment: When determining whether the pitcher throws or feints a throw to an

unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play, the umpire should consider whether a runner on the

previous base demonstrates or otherwise creates an impression of his intent to advance to such unoccupied

base.

A follow up question is; does that same move by a left hand pitcher apply. In other words if a left hand pitcher with raising his right leg sees a runner take off to second base can he continue that motion to a step over move and throw to second base?

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Posted (edited)

Based on your descriptions, you are more correct than the umpire (a small quibble, perhaps, with the phrasing "if a right hand pitcher moves his right foot first regardless of the amount, and he completes his throw to first it is NOT a balk" depending on the specifics of the movement).

 

Here's a CMT to (new) 6.02

 

(B) With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete

turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to

second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an

unoccupied base.

 

And, all the pitching rules apply the same to RH and LH pitchers.

Edited by noumpere
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  1. The pitching restrictions require stepping toward a base when throwing (or, where legal, feinting) to it. The required step is with the free foot, not the pivot.
  2. The rules do not distinguish between RHP and LHP: the restrictions are identical. Other than that, what he ^^^ said.
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Posted

 

 

(B) With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete

turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to

second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an

unoccupied base.

 

.

​I always hated this quote, because while I think it correctly points out that such a move is allowed under the rules, it incorrectly states that "[t]his is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unocupied base." It most certainly is throwing to an unoccupied base, but is legal because it should be interpreted as a move to "make a play." The wording of this comment just confuses things.


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