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Posted

NFHS JV -- R1, R2 1 out. F1 throws a wild pitch.  Both runners move up, before the ball stops moving, the on-deck batter picks up and hands the ball to F2.  

I (BU) call time and get together with my partner.  We call R2 (now R3) out and send R1 back to first.

Were we right? or OOO?

Posted
2 minutes ago, ElkOil said:

What was your rationale for calling the runner out?

On interference, I knew I should get the out. Can't call the on-deck batter out, so it was the closest to home.

 

@basejester since the ball was still moving, how do I know there is no hindrance?

Posted
8 minutes ago, LMSANS said:

On interference, I knew I should get the out. Can't call the on-deck batter out, so it was the closest to home.

 

@basejester since the ball was still moving, how do I know there is no hindrance?

I wasn't there.  In your judgment, did the on-deck batter hinder the defensive player attempting to make a play?

 

  • Like 1
Posted

From the 2016 BRD (section 327, p. 216):

FED: Point not covered. Official Interpretation: Hopkins:  If an on-deck batter picks up a live ball: (1) With runners not moving, the ball is simply dead; (2) with runners moving, the ball is dead and the runner on whom the defense would have played is out. If the umpire cannot determine which runner, the one nearer home is out. (Website 2003 #19)

Posted

I've seen this interp before but I still wonder about the phrase "the runner whom the defense would have played"....Let's assume, like in most cases of passed balls that have deflected as far as the on deck circle, that F2 was merely retrieving the ball, since both R2 and R1 have already achieved 3B and 2B before, or around the same time as F2 would be getting to the ball. It's obvious to everybody in the park that F2 had no play on either runner when the ODH picks up the ball and flips it to F1 or F2. I just can't see calling INT on this.  ...

  • Like 1
Posted
59 minutes ago, Richvee said:

I've seen this interp before but I still wonder about the phrase "the runner whom the defense would have played"....Let's assume, like in most cases of passed balls that have deflected as far as the on deck circle, that F2 was merely retrieving the ball, since both R2 and R1 have already achieved 3B and 2B before, or around the same time as F2 would be getting to the ball. It's obvious to everybody in the park that F2 had no play on either runner when the ODH picks up the ball and flips it to F1 or F2. I just can't see calling INT on this.  ...

And it's assistance, not interference.

Posted
9 hours ago, Richvee said:

It's obvious to everybody in the park that F2 had no play on either runner when the ODH picks up the ball and flips it to F1 or F2. I just can't see calling INT on this.  ...

If "no play" means the runners are basically at the base, then fine, we'll leave it at "don't do that."

Benefit of any doubt and then some to the defense on this call: it's stupid, and stupid is often, though not necessarily, costly.

  • Like 1
Posted
20 hours ago, Senor Azul said:

From the 2016 BRD (section 327, p. 216):

 

FED: Point not covered. Official Interpretation: Hopkins:  If an on-deck batter picks up a live ball: (1) With runners not moving, the ball is simply dead; (2) with runners moving, the ball is dead and the runner on whom the defense would have played is out. If the umpire cannot determine which runner, the one nearer home is out. (Website 2003 #19)

 

Does this include ball four where the batter-runner, and any forced runners, must be moving?  And does it apply to batter-runner alone when bases are empty?

Posted
Just now, beerguy55 said:

Does this include ball four where the batter-runner, and any forced runners, must be moving? 

No. They're advancing on an award in that case, so no hindrance is possible. But it's still a "don't do that."

1 minute ago, beerguy55 said:

And does it apply to batter-runner alone when bases are empty?

No, nor to the on-deck batter. No hindrance = no INT.

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