Tborze

1st base is not a "force base"!

Babe Ruth?

This is an opportunity to educate, especially during fall ball. Grant the TO. Dust off the plate and let the catcher know the runners weren't going anywhere. Between innings, go to the coach and explain there is seldom a situation where time is needed and most umpires are not going to grant it. No different than the infield requesting it or a runner diving back to the bag on a pick off attempt. Not only does this give them an opportunity to work on it at practice, but maybe you earn some respect in the process without coming across as a OOO. In your situation, when the catcher shrugged his shoulders, I may have took that opportunity to talk to the HC then.

Why is little Jimmy playing?

The Ump must have been right! He hasn't responded back yet

^ Seems they refer to it as a throw out, not a force out!?

That, was kind of important to the situation, don't ya think I see now you were following up with your first question.

If there is no appeal, both runs score. If appealed and upheld, 1 run scores. If 2 outs, no runs score.

Yes, R2 is out the moment he passed R3. Yes, R3 is out for abandonment. R3 is also traded

No run scores in any situation when the BR is thrown out before reaching 1st base for the 3rd out. <Not a force out! No different than a 6-4-3 DP

No. You should acknowledge the coaches appeal and over-rule your partner who obviously missed it, based on your opinion

Yes. No. Well, they can appeal, doesn't mean it would be upheld.

A pitcher is required to THROW to 1B while in contact with the rubber. Feinting to third does not! If a quick feint to 3B followed by a feint to 1B while still contacting the rubber, it would be a balk.

Foul ball seems to justify the umps decision, not saying it was!

"FOUL BALL"!