With a runner on 2nd... When a pitcher makes the inside move for a pickoff attempt, what constitutes "gaining ground" toward 2nd?
Assume the pitcher is using the set position, so the non-pivot foot is in front of the pivot foot. Where must the non-pivot foot land in order for him to "gain ground"?
1) Does it have to "clear the rubber"?
2) Can it land partially on the rubber, as long as the non-pivot foot is then completely behind the pivot foot (which is in contact with, and parallel to, the rubber)?
3) Does just some of the non-pivot foot landing behind the pivot foot suffice? That is, the non-pivot foot is now closer to 2nd base than it was to start.
Maybe these pics will better illustrate. Which of these is/are legal moves?
By Guest Jen
If a first baseman attempts to field a ground ball hit to her but has one foot past the foul line and bobbles the ball, would that be considered fair or foul?
By Guest jhopp
Here's the situation and what happens.....
runner on first, no outs, batter hits a pop up that goes directly up and comes down almost exactly on first base.
runner on first does not move at all. 1st basemen slides over to make the catch and just before the catch he bumps into the guy standing
on first causing the 1st basemen to drop the ball.
runner moves off 1st base towards second base and 1st basement moves over to get under the ball and is now standing right on top of 1st base. The runner not wanting to be called out for leaving 1st comes back to first and just as the 1st basemen is about to catch the ball he bumps into him and once again the catch is dropped.
Personally, i have seen both things happen and both times I called dead ball runner interference.
In the first scenerio, it was my judgement that even thou the runner doesn't need to leave the base which would result in a double play, he could of stepped over to the side of the bag and kept a foot on the bag and allowed the 1st basemen to make the catch. I know the runner didn't intentionally interfere, but he also did nothing to not interfere.
In the second scenerio, I again called runner interference because although the runner has a right to get back to the bag, he could of slide in or went low to corner of bag which would avoided the bumping of the 1st basemen trying to make the catch.
Were my calls correct? I know the offensive team did not think so in either case. But to me getting called for interference has the same result as allowing the guy to catch the ball. Both equal one out and avoid a double play.
Also, please confirm that the runner is out, and the batter should be granted 1st, and if there was a runner on 2nd or 3rd they would have to return.
Didn't happen in my game, but a manager/board member asked me a question after one of my games. He said that during one of his teams games (U10), his runner successfully stole second, but at the next pitch he took a lead off of second towards first. He said that he knew the pitcher and was trying to mess him up. I said that I can't think of an exact rule, and I later checked, saying that he couldn't do it, but he would have to make sure he touched second to go to third, and that he is not on a base so he is eligible to be put out. I also said that, had I been the BU, that I would just tell him to get back on the base because to me, that's unsportsmanlike conduct.
By Guest Richard
I have a feeling this has been a common topic but I can't seem to find any answers that specifically answer this as right or wrong so please help...
Situation: Runner on 1st only - Pitcher set position. Pitcher begins wind up and runner takes off to steal second base. Pitcher turns and throws to player covering 2nd base to tag runner on the steal. Now here's the controversy...all umpires I speak with on this give me different answers. Some say balk, some say legal. I know, and I have shown those calling it a balk, that rule 8.05(m)(b) gives a pitcher the right to make this move as 2nd base is not considered occupied in this situation. The next dilemma is this...If the pitcher makes this move and then the runner stops and goes back to 1st, I am being told that it is NOW a balk because the runner stalling his movement to 2nd cancels the pitchers justification to throw to 2nd "for the purpose of making a play" since the runner is not stealing. My problem, and hope for clarification for, is this accurate? Is the runner stalling a way to "defeat" the pitcher able to throw to 2nd during a 1st to 2nd steal or is it still a legal move whether the runner continues or stops?
Thank you for any help and clarification I can get because it's been a point of contention since before the season began, we have 3 games left and I STILL don't have an answer so I don't let my pitchers make the move in fear of an unknown balk call because of an umpires interpretation of the two lines;
(1)"for the purposes of making a play" and
(2)"With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base"
Because depending on interpretation, the second line could cover the move as legal regardless of the runner stopping his steal or not.