Common Pickoff Dilemma

[Guest Richard]

I have a feeling this has been a common topic but I can't seem to find any answers that specifically answer this as right or wrong so please help...

Situation: Runner on 1st only - Pitcher set position.  Pitcher begins wind up and runner takes off to steal second base.  Pitcher turns and throws to player covering 2nd base to tag runner on the steal.  Now here's the controversy...all umpires I speak with on this give me different answers.  Some say balk, some say legal.  I know, and I have shown those calling it a balk, that rule 8.05(m)(b) gives a pitcher the right to make this move as 2nd base is not considered occupied in this situation.  The next dilemma is this...If the pitcher makes this move and then the runner stops and goes back to 1st, I am being told that it is NOW a balk because the runner stalling his movement to 2nd cancels the pitchers justification to throw to 2nd "for the purpose of making a play" since the runner is not stealing. My problem, and hope for clarification for, is this accurate?  Is the runner stalling a way to "defeat" the pitcher able to throw to 2nd during a 1st to 2nd steal or is it still a legal move whether the runner continues or stops?

 

Thank you for any help and clarification I can get because it's been a point of contention since before the season began, we have 3 games left and I STILL don't have an answer so I don't let my pitchers make the move in fear of an unknown balk call because of an umpires interpretation of the two lines;

(1)"for the purposes of making a play" and

(2)"With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base"

Because depending on interpretation, the second line could cover the move as legal regardless of the runner stopping his steal or not.

 

-Richard

[maven]

8.05(d) comment changed last year and I don't know whether makes it more or less tricky to judge:

"Rule 8.05(d) Comment: When determining whether the pitcher throws or feints a throw to an

unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play, the umpire should consider whether a runner on the previous base demonstrates or otherwise creates an impression of his intent to advance to such unoc- cupied base."

 

I don't think that's germane to this play. R1 is going; F1 was going to throw to 1B, now decides to throw to 2B. Either will be legal, provided that he steps and throws directly to the base. Since the runner's going, it's easy to determine that a throw to 2B would be for the purpose of making a play.

 

The problem for F1 is that, once you start to throw to 1B, it's almost impossible to switch to 2B fluidly enough to count as "directly" and without hesitation.

[Guest roothog66]

8.05(d) comment changed last year and I don't know whether makes it more or less tricky to judge:

"Rule 8.05(d) Comment: When determining whether the pitcher throws or feints a throw to an

unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play, the umpire should consider whether a runner on the previous base demonstrates or otherwise creates an impression of his intent to advance to such unoc- cupied base."

This went a long way to clearing up the situation. Before this, umps were all over the board (understandably) in interpreting "make a play." Some interpreted that when a runner stopped and retreated back to first, it made it a balk. Others would interpret it to mean half-way - they would balk the pitcher unless the runner had reached a point halfway between first and secodn before stopping.