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If a first baseman attempts to field a ground ball hit to her but has one foot past the foul line and bobbles the ball, would that be considered fair or foul?

Here's the situation and what happens..... runner on first, no outs, batter hits a pop up that goes directly up and comes down almost exactly on first base. First scenerio...... runner on first does not move at all. 1st basemen slides over to make the catch and just before the catch he bumps into the guy standing on first causing the 1st basemen to drop the ball. Second scenerio..... runner moves off 1st base towards second base and 1st basement moves over to get under the ball and is now standing right on top of 1st base. The runner not wanting to be called out for leaving 1st comes back to first and just as the 1st basemen is about to catch the ball he bumps into him and once again the catch is dropped. Personally, i have seen both things happen and both times I called dead ball runner interference. In the first scenerio, it was my judgement that even thou the runner doesn't need to leave the base which would result in a double play, he could of stepped over to the side of the bag and kept a foot on the bag and allowed the 1st basemen to make the catch. I know the runner didn't intentionally interfere, but he also did nothing to not interfere. In the second scenerio, I again called runner interference because although the runner has a right to get back to the bag, he could of slide in or went low to corner of bag which would avoided the bumping of the 1st basemen trying to make the catch. Were my calls correct? I know the offensive team did not think so in either case. But to me getting called for interference has the same result as allowing the guy to catch the ball. Both equal one out and avoid a double play. Also, please confirm that the runner is out, and the batter should be granted 1st, and if there was a runner on 2nd or 3rd they would have to return. thanks.

Hi there. I play first base for my high school team and am having a problem with my coach regarding the way I am holding runners on. Here is the situation. With a runner in first base and a lefty pitcher, I play pretty much behind the runner. When my pitcher (the move of whom I can see before the runner) makes his initial start of his stretch, I sneak in behind the runner and receive the ball from the pitcher on a pickoff throw. My coach says this is illegal in that it is throwing to an unoccupied base and I am deceiving the runner. So I need your help, is if legal what I am doing because I have had great success with it. If possible, please cite some rules from the Official a Rule Book in your response. Thanks!

This is a pretty bizarre play. Let me know what you have on this situation. Batted ball hits first base before touching the ground. It ricochet's into the pitcher's glove. He runs over and touches first base to get the out. The announcers note that similar to a ball that is batted, hits the pitchers rubber and goes into the air where it is caught, it does not require touching a base as it is a catch. I think they are mistaken on both counts but I cannot find a reference in the NFHS or other rule books. I looked in NFHS Rules 1-29 (Base Equipment), and 2-9-1 (Definition of a catch) to no avail. Here is the link to video: http://www.huffingtonpost.com/2014/04/07/sonny-gray-1st-base-bag_n_5105443.html?ncid=txtlnkusaolp00000592