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  1. Richvee's post in NFHS DH Rule Situation was marked as the answer   
    Yes. The starting pitcher is now on the bench with reentry rights. The DH position is eliminated. If the starting pitcher re enters  the game at any defensive position, he would have to replace the above mentioned former DH. The starting pitcher and the starting DH are locked in their spot in the batting order. Once that starting DH takes a fielding position only   one of those two ( the starting pitcher and the starting DH) can be in the game at any given time. 
  2. Richvee's post in Foul ball was marked as the answer   
    Foul ball.  The fielder’s foot position is irrelevant. It’s where was the ball is when  it touched his glove. As long as it touched his glove, where the ball lands is also irrelevant. 
  3. Richvee's post in Fly ball was marked as the answer   
    No catch.
    A CATCH is the act of a fielder in getting secure possession in his
    hand or glove of a ball in flight and firmly holding it;
    Once the ball hits the fence it is no longer considered "in flight"
  4. Richvee's post in runner interference? was marked as the answer   
    Did F5 have the best chance at fielding the ball? Or F6? The umpire must decide who is the protected fielder. Only one fielder, the fielder with the best chance at fielding the ball, is protected. 
    If F5 did indeed have a play on the ball, being that he was in front of F6 with the first shot at fielding the ball, I'd guess he'd be the protected fielder, and therefore we have INT on R2. The play is dead, R2 is out BR gets 1B. 
    On the other hand, if F5 had no shot at fielding the ground ball, (F5 just taking a casual step or two in the direction of the batted ball into R2's path), and F6 was obviously the only one with any shot at fielding the ball, then we would have obstruction on F5. Play continues with R2 being awarded bases the umpire deems he would have made safely had there been no obstruction. 
  5. Richvee's post in Fed Mechanic? was marked as the answer   
    FED manual has had this mechanic for many years. Why?? Who knows. Maybe they think there's too many HS umpires who can't beat a batter runner from "A" to a decent spot to call a play at 3B? Unless you're being evaluated by a "by the book" assignor/supervisor, this mechanic is often nixed in a pre-game meeting. Also many places use college mechanics in HS games, some associations even have their own mechanics manuals. Actually, the more I think about it, there's probably very few places other than NJ where the FED umpire's manual is followed like it's the law.
  6. Richvee's post in Foul ball with runner stealing was marked as the answer   
    Returns to 1B. "runners return to their time of pitch base"...He would have had to acquire 2B BEFORE the pitcher begins his motion to pitch. 
  7. Richvee's post in Balk was marked as the answer   
    Different rule sets treat balks differently, though in this case the outcome is the same.
    Under FED rules.(High school rules), the ball is dead the instant the balk is called. It's no pitch regardless of what happens on the pitch...The pitch doesn't count even if the batter hits it out of the park.
    Under Official Baseball Rules (OBR), the balk is enforced unless the batter and all other runners advance at least one base on the pitch. In your example, as soon as the ball is caught for out by F8, time is called, and the balk is enforced. (batter did not reach 1B on the pitch). All runners move up one base, and the pitch does not count.
  8. Richvee's post in Interference was marked as the answer   
    The call of interference on this type of play ends the playing action. . R2 is out, batter/runner gets 1B,  R3 returns to 3B. Technically, the throw to 1B never happened.
    Contact does not need to happen for interference to be called. If the umpire judges the runner hindered F6's attempt to field the ball in any way, it is interference, the ball is dead immediately. The fact that "F6 made the play anyway" has no bearing on the call or the outcome.
  9. Richvee's post in Batter turning at first base was marked as the answer   
    Simply turning to the left is not sufficient to be called out if tagged. The runner needs to make an attempt..could be a step, deke, etc. towards 2B. "Veers" is a vague term. Could be interpreted as "rounding 1B", that would indeed be an attempt towards 2B.
  10. Richvee's post in Run count? was marked as the answer   
    No run can score when the 3rd out is a force out. A force out is defined by the runner's status, not by the way the runner is put out. Tag of the bag, or the runner before he reaches the next base.... doesn't matter which.
  11. Richvee's post in Batted ball hits runner was marked as the answer   
    Once the ball deflects off a fielder, the pitcher in  this case, the base runner is not called for interference if he is unintentionally hit by the deflected ball. (Interference can be called if it is intentional). Additionally, and only if it didn't deflect off the pitcher, and F4 had a chance to field the ball and didn't, once the ball is past him, the runner would not be called out for interference unless there was another infielder who had a chance to make a play on the ball  or if it was intentional. Keep in mind, the runner is still required to avoid a fielder making a play on the ball. 
  12. Richvee's post in leaving base was marked as the answer   
    he's out. Doesn't need to be tagged. It's called abandonment. 
    Rule 5.09(b)(1) and (2) Comment (Rule 7.08(a ) Comment):
    Any runner after reaching first base who leaves the base path
    heading for his dugout or his position believing that there is no
    further play, may be declared out if the umpire judges the act
    of the runner to be considered abandoning his efforts to run the
  13. Richvee's post in Possible obstruction was marked as the answer   
    A couple things.
    1. The offense can't " call obstruction". The umpire calls obstruction when it happens ,and play continues. At the end of playing action, the umpire can award bases that he believes the runner(s) would have reached safely had there been no obstruction. There are many particulars and some differences on the particulars of obstruction depending on the rule set.(Official BaseballRules (OBR), high school (FED), NCAA).
    2. I believe it is the same in all rule sets, if the umpire calls obstruction and in his his judgement the runner missed the base because of the obstruction, he may deny the appeal of the missed base. Just because the umpire calls obstruction doesn't necessarily mean he will judge the missed base was because of the obstruction.  If there is no obstruction call during the play, then the runner undoubtedly needs to touch the bag or risk being called out on appeal.
    3. In your case, it sounds like there was a good chance F5 obstructed R2. Was it called by an umpire? If not, then the base must be touched and there is no obstruction.
    4. It would be impossible for us to judge without seeing the play if the obstruction caused the runner to miss third base. .
    Hope that helps.
  14. Richvee's post in Completed baseball game was marked as the answer   
    I'm going to assume you're learning the game and this is a serious question....
    When the home team is ahead after the visitors have batted in the 9th inning. Then the home team does not bat in the 9th inning
  15. Richvee's post in Bases Awarded was marked as the answer   
    Yes. You are correct. A pitched ball that goes into DBT is a one base award. As would be a throw to a base from the rubber that goes out of play. Not to be confused with a pitcher who steps off the rubber, and then throws out of play..That's two bases because once the pitcher steps off the rubber he's considered an infielder. From the rubber, it's one base. .
  16. Richvee's post in Balk was marked as the answer   
    No. Under official baseball rules,(OBR) If the batter and all runners do not advance at least one base, the balk is enforced. In this case, once the batter is thrown out at 1B, time is called, R2 is awarded 3B and the batter returns to bat with the previous count. (The pitch does not count).
    Under high school rules, (FED) the ball is dead as soon as the balk is called. The pitch does not count no matter what the batter does. (Yes, if he hits a HR it doesn't count) Runner to 3rd.
  17. Richvee's post in Coach Jim was marked as the answer   
    No. If the runner took off before the pitcher started his motion to pitch, the pitcher may step and throw to 3B. This is an attempt to retire a runner, and is the exception to the rule that states it is a balk to throw to an unoccupied base 
  18. Richvee's post in Catch or Foul? was marked as the answer   
    Once the ball deflects off the fence, it can no longer be caught "in flight". Foul. 
  19. Richvee's post in Balk? was marked as the answer   
    A stop is not required before stepping and throwing to a base. You can stretch and come set fast or slow, mix it up all you want. As long as there's a discernible stop before the delivery of a pitch to the batter. 
    funny does not = illegal.
  20. Richvee's post in Fair or foul was marked as the answer   
    On any ball that has touched the ground before 1B or 3B, the only thing that matters is where THE BALL is when the fielder touches it. Where the fielder's feet are has no bearing on fair / foul.
  21. Richvee's post in Coach was marked as the answer   
    He can step and throw to an occupied 1B at any time during his stretch or set. He need not come to a complete stop. A complete stop is only required before a pitch is delivered to the plate.
  22. Richvee's post in Go back or not was marked as the answer   
    Yes. He must return or liable to be put out on appeal. 1B was his base at the time of the pitch, (TOP) which is what matters. Only way he can legally stay at 2B is if he reached it before the pitcher began his motion to pitch.
  23. Richvee's post in John M was marked as the answer   
    Correct call. The force was reinstated once R1 retreated past 2B towards 1B.. Stepping on 2B by the defense at this point is a force out,and therefore, the run does not score.
  24. Richvee's post in Runner interference was marked as the answer   
    There is no play after the ball hits the runner. The ball is dead. The play is over. The fielder catching the ball and throwing to first "never happened" 
  25. Richvee's post in Balk? was marked as the answer   
    Once he steps off the rubber, he's an infielder. If I'm reading this right, he steps off the rubber, and then as he turns to 2B the pivot foot moves back and contacts the rubber? I've got a legal disengagement and an out.
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