Runner interference - High School

[Guest Glen Roy]

Runners on first and second, 0 outs.  Ground ball hits the runner going to third. He should be out for interference.   Is it immediately a dead ball?  If so, does the runner from first advance to second and the batter gets first?  

[Jimurray]

23 minutes ago, Guest Glen Roy said:

Runners on first and second, 0 outs.  Ground ball hits the runner going to third. He should be out for interference.   Is it immediately a dead ball?  If so, does the runner from first advance to second and the batter gets first?  

Yes, dead ball, R2 is out. Only in NFHS you can judge a DP was possible and call out one of the other runners.

[Richvee]

There’s a little more we need to know. Was f5 playing in? If the ball went by F5 before contacting R2, and F6 didn’t have a chance to make a play on the ball, there is no interference. 
 

If the infielders were behind the runner, once the ball contacts R2, the ball is dead, R2 is out, batter is awarded 1b, R1 to second. 

[maven]

58 minutes ago, Guest Glen Roy said:

Runners on first and second, 0 outs.  Ground ball hits the runner going to third. He should be out for interference.   Is it immediately a dead ball?  If so, does the runner from first advance to second and the batter gets first?  

If INT is called, then yes, the ball is dead, the runner is out, and other runners return unless forced to advance by the BR being awarded 1B. (That would make a difference on your play had bases been loaded.)

As for FED, we should interpret whether a double play was "possible" to mean a double play was "likely." IOW, the ground ball was a "double play ball," and the runner's INT prevented that double play.

OBR and other codes permit umpires to call 2 outs here only in case the runner "willfully and deliberately" tried to prevent a double play. This standard is substantially different from FED's.

[beerguy55]

On 7/10/2022 at 6:51 PM, Guest Glen Roy said:

Runners on first and second, 0 outs.  Ground ball hits the runner going to third. He should be out for interference.   Is it immediately a dead ball?  If so, does the runner from first advance to second and the batter gets first?  

R1 gets second ONLY because the batter is getting first.

If, for example, the batted ball hit R1, then R2 would be returned to second base.

Batter gets first base and is credited with a hit.

[MadMax]

9 hours ago, beerguy55 said:

Batter gets first base and is credited with a hit.

I know this isn’t Scorekeeper State, but the Batter is not (never?) credited with a Hit. It goes down as a Fielder’s Choice, accredited to the nearest Fielder. 

[Senor Azul]

2021 OBR rule

9.05 Base Hits

(a) The Official Scorer shall credit a batter with a base hit when:

(5) a fair ball that has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire, unless a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly, in which case the Official Scorer shall not score a hit; or

FED rule 9-3

ART. 2 . . . A base hit is credited to a batter when he advances to first base safely:

b. without liability of being put out because: a runner is declared out for being hit by the batted ball (8-4-2k), or the umpire is hit by a batted ball (8-1-2b), or

Mr. MadMax, you posted this very same objection in a thread titled definition of a hit that appeared in the Ask the Umpire forum in July 2018.

[beerguy55]

16 hours ago, MadMax said:

I know this isn’t Scorekeeper State, but the Batter is not (never?) credited with a Hit. It goes down as a Fielder’s Choice, accredited to the nearest Fielder. 

Thanks to @Senor Azulfor citing the documentation.   I learned it on a day my daughter went 4/5 at the plate at Nationals, assuming she had gone 2/5 until I looked at the box score...she had TWO hits in the game where the same R1 got hit by the batted ball.

[Velho]

6 minutes ago, beerguy55 said:

she had TWO hits in the game where the same R1 got hit by the batted ball.

Dang she's good!

[MadMax]

[Senor Azul]

Mr. MadMax, now that you have officially given up I can tell you that you were oh so close to being right. In fact, you are probably going to kick yourself. The rules instruct the scorekeeper to differentiate the scoring when a runner interferes with the fielder as opposed to interfering with the batted ball--

9.05(b) The Official Scorer shall not credit a base hit when a (runner):

(5) is called out for interference with a fielder attempting to field a batted ball, unless in the scorer’s judgment the batter-runner would have been safe had the interference not occurred.

So, in most instances, a batter will not receive credit for a base hit when the runner is called out for having interfered with a fielder; credit for the putout goes to the fielder with whom the runner interfered.  Since the batter is still awarded first base, it cannot be a hit or an error by rule then the notation used for the batter’s at-bat would be an FC.