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<acronym title='Batter-runner'>BR </acronym>Misses 1B


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Posted

On a ground ball in the IF, the throw comes to F3 on the home plate side of the base, and he stretches to catch it. His glove is approximately at the baseline and his glove does not go into foul territory when he catches the ball.

But before the catch takes place, the BR sees F3 reaching for the ball and thinks he will collide if F3 has to move into his baseline. So the BR takes a quick step to his right and barely misses 1B. But that last step actually beats the throw to F3.

The BU sees the BR's last step (to the side of the base) beating the throw to F3. There is no obstruction.

Should the mechanic be to call the BR out, safe, or be silent until someone reacts? And is this different in FED vs. OBR?

Posted

Call Safe. Out on proper appeal.

For OBR this is only true for plays at 1B, for 2B, 3B and HP, do nothing until someone reacts, correct?

Posted

He beat the throw, so he's safe at first. If the defense properly appeals, then he is out for missing the bag. For the others, don't say or do anything to point out the fact he missed it until it is appealed. I haven't ever done a FED game, so I can't tell you what happens. But I would be interested to find out.

Posted

But remember that the appeal must be done before the runner gets back to first!

Posted

It's true for 2B and 3B, but not home.

Why?

Because a missed base is assumed acquired unless appealed 7.10

Home plate has a specific ruling in the MLBUM Section 5.3

On a play at the plate, should the runner miss home plate and the fielder miss the tag on the

runner, it is preferable that the umpire make no signal on the play.

Posted

It's true for 2B and 3B, but not home.

Why?

Because a missed base is assumed acquired unless appealed 7.10

Home plate has a specific ruling in the MLBUM Section 5.3

On a play at the plate, should the runner miss home plate and the fielder miss the tag on the

runner, it is preferable that the umpire make no signal on the play.

that is true. good post Rich

Posted

But remember that the appeal must be done before the runner gets back to first!

Right or wrong ? If the runner immediately realizes he missed the base and tries to retouch, he must be tagged. I think that was discussed on here before at some point.

Posted

So if I'm reading the responses correctly, I think this is what I see happening. In the OP, F3 has his foot on the base and BU calls "safe" and BR is somewhere down the line having overrun 1B...In order to get the out, F3 must now say something to BU while either keeping his foot on 1B or going out to tag the BR before he returns to touch 1B. Is this correct?

Posted

So if I'm reading the responses correctly, I think this is what I see happening. In the OP, F3 has his foot on the base and BU calls "safe" and BR is somewhere down the line having overrun 1B...In order to get the out, F3 must now say something to BU while either keeping his foot on 1B or going out to tag the BR before he returns to touch 1B. Is this correct?

Exactly.

But remember that the appeal must be done before the runner gets back to first!

Right or wrong ? If the runner immediately realizes he missed the base and tries to retouch, he must be tagged. I think that was discussed on here before at some point.

Only true at HP.

Posted

So if I'm reading the responses correctly, I think this is what I see happening. In the OP, F3 has his foot on the base and BU calls "safe" and BR is somewhere down the line having overrun 1B...In order to get the out, F3 must now say something to BU while either keeping his foot on 1B or going out to tag the BR before he returns to touch 1B. Is this correct?

You got it!!!! :notworthy:

Posted

I tossed a coach out for arguing that 2 years ago at a CABA super 17 tourn. F3 never touched the bag or runner and BR was standing on first when they appealed. I ran the coach right after he stepped out of the dugout, then turned my back on him and walked to B.

Posted

Curious, why is obstruction not called on the 1b if his coming into the lane to catch an errant throw is what causes the BR to miss first base? Assuming he doesn't yet have the ball when he obstructs.

Posted

Curious, why is obstruction not called on the 1b if his coming into the lane to catch an errant throw is what causes the BR to miss first base? Assuming he doesn't yet have the ball when he obstructs.

Obstruction is the act of a fielder who while not in possession of the ball and not in the act of fielding a ball, impedes the progress of any runner (in this case the BR) If a fielder is about to recieve a thrown ball and if the ball is in flight directly toward and near enough to the fielder so he must occupy his position to recieve the ball he may be considered "in the act of fielding the ball." It is entirely up to the judgement of the umpire as to whether a fielder is in the act of fielding a ball. Straight out of the PBUC manual.... hope that answers your question

Posted

Curious, why is obstruction not called on the 1b if his coming into the lane to catch an errant throw is what causes the BR to miss first base? Assuming he doesn't yet have the ball when he obstructs.

Obstruction is the act of a fielder who while not in possession of the ball and not in the act of fielding a ball, impedes the progress of any runner (in this case the BR) If a fielder is about to recieve a thrown ball and if the ball is in flight directly toward and near enough to the fielder so he must occupy his position to recieve the ball he may be considered "in the act of fielding the ball." It is entirely up to the judgement of the umpire as to whether a fielder is in the act of fielding a ball. Straight out of the PBUC manual.... hope that answers your question

unless, of course, it's a FED game, in which the act of fielding is irrelevant. No ball? Obstruction.

  • Like 1
Posted

Plus, In FED you can make a verbal appeal before the runner gets back to the bag.

Only if the ball is dead can you make a verbal appeal.

Yes. Dead ball appeal.

Posted

So if I'm reading the responses correctly, I think this is what I see happening. In the OP, F3 has his foot on the base and BU calls "safe" and BR is somewhere down the line having overrun 1B...In order to get the out, F3 must now say something to BU while either keeping his foot on 1B or going out to tag the BR before he returns to touch 1B. Is this correct?

You got it!!!! :notworthy:

Sorry to belabor the point, gents, but I'm confused. If F3 has his foot on the base while possessing the ball and BR has never touched 1B, why not signal BR out initially? Seems as though the out mechanic is in order, regardless of whether or not BR's last step (missing 1B) beat the throw. I've been known to misread a post from time to time. Thanks.

Posted

So if I'm reading the responses correctly, I think this is what I see happening. In the OP, F3 has his foot on the base and BU calls "safe" and BR is somewhere down the line having overrun 1B...In order to get the out, F3 must now say something to BU while either keeping his foot on 1B or going out to tag the BR before he returns to touch 1B. Is this correct?

You got it!!!! :notworthy:

Sorry to belabor the point, gents, but I'm confused. If F3 has his foot on the base while possessing the ball and BR has never touched 1B, why not signal BR out initially? Seems as though the out mechanic is in order, regardless of whether or not BR's last step (missing 1B) beat the throw. I've been known to misread a post from time to time. Thanks.

If a BR beats the throw to first but misses the base he to be called safe. If the defense appeals the call by tagging or verbal appeal before the BR gets back to the base then an Out will be called.

The BR is said to have acquired the base. Even if he misses the base.

Posted

Plus, In FED you can make a verbal appeal before the runner gets back to the bag.

Only if the ball is dead can you make a verbal appeal.

Yes. Dead ball appeal.

I'm only calling "time" when the runner returns to the base so the appeal would be irrelevant unless the runner advanced to 2nd.

Posted

So if I'm reading the responses correctly, I think this is what I see happening. In the OP, F3 has his foot on the base and BU calls "safe" and BR is somewhere down the line having overrun 1B...In order to get the out, F3 must now say something to BU while either keeping his foot on 1B or going out to tag the BR before he returns to touch 1B. Is this correct?

You got it!!!! :notworthy:

Sorry to belabor the point, gents, but I'm confused. If F3 has his foot on the base while possessing the ball and BR has never touched 1B, why not signal BR out initially? Seems as though the out mechanic is in order, regardless of whether or not BR's last step (missing 1B) beat the throw. I've been known to misread a post from time to time. Thanks.

If a BR beats the throw to first but misses the base he to be called safe. If the defense appeals the call by tagging or verbal appeal before the BR gets back to the base then an Out will be called.

The BR is said to have acquired the base. Even if he misses the base.

exactly correct. Seems odd to call him safe, but my friend here is absolutely right.
Posted

So if F3 tags BR before he returns to 1b, you're not calling him out? the ball is still live, so this is a live ball appeal.

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