Runner Interference

[zoops]

2 outs, R2.  Grounder hit to F5.  R2 going towards third does not make contact but F5, after gloving the ball, has to step around R2 to make his throw to 1st.  Hard to explain exactly what it looked like, but he definitely had to alter his footwork to avoid contacting R2.  Interference?

[sdix00]

yup

[Mike Prince]

Yes by definition.  Runner clearly hindered F5 who is attempting to make a play.

[JaxRolo]

All day long. And tomorrow also.

[maven]

@UmpJM posted the interp in another thread: a fielder is still in the act of fielding for the purpose of the INT protections while he is gaining possession of AND throwing the ball to make a play.

 

So, this fielder is still in the act of fielding the ball, and thus still protected, when the runner hinders him. That runner is thus liable to be called out for his INT, other runners return.

 

If 2 could have been put out (FED) or the runner willfully and deliberately interfered (OBR), then you can get 2 outs for the INT.

[UmpJM]

@maven,

 

Appreciate the "shout out". For those who didn't see it: http://umpire-empire.com/index.php/topic/56588-what-is-considered-a-play/

 

I still can't believe I didn't get a "best answer" gold star for that one. Sheesh, what's a guy gotta do? 

 

Do you think it was because of the lame Zoolander reference I followed up with?

 

JM

[Replacematt]

@maven,

 

Appreciate the "shout out". For those who didn't see it: http://umpire-empire.com/index.php/topic/56588-what-is-considered-a-play/

 

I still can't believe I didn't get a "best answer" gold star for that one. Sheesh, what's a guy gotta do? 

 

Do you think it was because of the lame Zoolander reference I followed up with?

 

JM

 

Don't feel bad...on one occasion, someone edited their prior post to reflect mine, and then got "best answer." Shenanigans, I tell you.

[UmpJM]

Matt,

 

You're right. That is an even more egregious miscarriage of justice. I feel your pain, buddy.

 

JM

[alex7]

Having a hard time visualizing calling this, especially if it's a quality level.

 

F5 already has the ball.  

R2 runs in front of him, close enough to where F5 has to step around him or wait a half second as R2 runs by to throw the ball.

F5 for some reason doesn't tag the runner who ran in front of him close enough to bother his throwing step (usually just one step).

 

And I penalize the runner running to 3rd in front of a fielder with the ball?  Guess I wouldn't have thought of that call on the fly.  

 

"Oh, hi there runner.  Excuse me, let me step around you, pardon me, there you go.  Okay, now I can make my throw.  You ok there runner?  Nice and safe at 3rd now?"   

[Lala]

All day long. And tomorrow also.

Rolo would call that everyday of the week and twice on Sundays (as would I)

[UmpJM]

^ What Lala said....

 

JM

[Replacematt]

 

All day long. And tomorrow also.

Rolo would call that everyday of the week and twice on Sundays (as would I)

 

 

Even with no runners on.

[bam]

@UmpJM posted the interp in another thread: a fielder is still in the act of fielding for the purpose of the INT protections while he is gaining possession of AND throwing the ball to make a play.

 

So, this fielder is still in the act of fielding the ball, and thus still protected, when the runner hinders him. That runner is thus liable to be called out for his INT, other runners return.

 

If 2 could have been put out (FED) or the runner willfully and deliberately interfered (OBR), then you can get 2 outs for the INT.

You forgot to mention that the 2d out in the OP would NOT count towards the defense's next inning in the field.

[maven]

 

@UmpJM posted the interp in another thread: a fielder is still in the act of fielding for the purpose of the INT protections while he is gaining possession of AND throwing the ball to make a play.

 

So, this fielder is still in the act of fielding the ball, and thus still protected, when the runner hinders him. That runner is thus liable to be called out for his INT, other runners return.

 

If 2 could have been put out (FED) or the runner willfully and deliberately interfered (OBR), then you can get 2 outs for the INT.

You forgot to mention that the 2d out in the OP would NOT count towards the defense's next inning in the field.

 

 

bam, read carefully: IF 2 could have been put out...

[bam]

@UmpJM posted the interp in another thread: a fielder is still in the act of fielding for the purpose of the INT protections while he is gaining possession of AND throwing the ball to make a play.

 

So, this fielder is still in the act of fielding the ball, and thus still protected, when the runner hinders him. That runner is thus liable to be called out for his INT, other runners return.

 If 2 could have been put out (FED) or the runner willfully and deliberately interfered (OBR), then you can get 2 outs for the INT.

You forgot to mention that the 2d out in the OP would NOT count towards the defense's next inning in the field.

 

bam, read carefully: IF 2 could have been put out... I read it. I also read the OP. I REALLY need emoticons, but I'm using an iPad. Anyone else have none on their iPad?

Oh! If the runner col cocked the fielder, we'd have MC! Where's @Richvee when we need a good MC reference?

[zoops]

If there were only 1 out in the OP, and the only play that F5 was to go to 1st, would you call both R2 and the BR out?  Or does it have to be judged to be intentional interference to do that?  

 

What if it was a sharply hit grounder that likely could turn into a 5-4-3 DP (adding in an R1 now) but F5 was held up by having to go around R2 to make the throw to F4 (even if not judged to be deliberate), and they still get the out at 2nd but the throw to 1st is beaten out by a step? Could you call R2 and the BR out?  

[noumpere]

If there were only 1 out in the OP, and the only play that F5 was to go to 1st, would you call both R2 and the BR out?  Or does it have to be judged to be intentional interference to do that?  

 

What if it was a sharply hit grounder that likely could turn into a 5-4-3 DP (adding in an R1 now) but F5 was held up by having to go around R2 to make the throw to F4 (even if not judged to be deliberate), and they still get the out at 2nd but the throw to 1st is beaten out by a step? Could you call R2 and the BR out?  

OBR:  Must be intentionally designed to prevent the double play.

 

7.09(f):

If, in the judgment of the umpire, a base runner willfully and deliberately interferes

with a batted ball or a fielder in the act of fielding a batted ball with the obvious

intent to break up a double play, the ball is dead. The umpire shall call the runner

out for interference and also call out the batter-runner because of the action of his

teammate. In no event may bases be run or runs scored because of such action by a

runner.

 

FED:  A double play must be "obvious"

 

8-4-1h:

Any runner or retired runner interferes in a way which obviously hinders an obvious double play

 

(Note however that FED 8-4-2g just says "prevents a double play" and does not include "obvious"

[GreyhoundAggie]

I think I am brain farting just from not having called ball in almost a year with all my moving around.

 

So if you rule interference on R2 in fed. Are you getting him for the INT and awarding the BR 1st? Or getting him and the B/R for the DP.

 

Don't have my rulebook in front of me.

[noumpere]

I think I am brain farting just from not having called ball in almost a year with all my moving around.

 

So if you rule interference on R2 in fed. Are you getting him for the INT and awarding the BR 1st? Or getting him and the B/R for the DP.

 

Don't have my rulebook in front of me.

Depends on exactly what the play was and whether a DP was "obvious."  With R2 only, it's probably not "obvious" so rule R2 out and put BR at first.

[GreyhoundAggie]

 

I think I am brain farting just from not having called ball in almost a year with all my moving around.

 

So if you rule interference on R2 in fed. Are you getting him for the INT and awarding the BR 1st? Or getting him and the B/R for the DP.

 

Don't have my rulebook in front of me.

Depends on exactly what the play was and whether a DP was "obvious."  With R2 only, it's probably not "obvious" so rule R2 out and put BR at first.

 

That's what I was thinking.

[tjwoelfel13]

I agree with noumpere.