Timing play.. Should the player get 2nd or go back to first?

[Jayumpref19]

R1 is on third and R2 on first with no outs. F1 contacts the pitcher's plate and assumes the set position stance. As he begins his stretch, R2 advances toward second base attempting to steal. F1 realizes R2 is stealing but he does not throw to second, fearing that R1 will break for home and score. F1 completes his stretch, coming to a pause with the ball in both hands in front of his body. R2 reaches second and rounds it, after which F1 delivers the ball to B3, who fouls a pitch into the stands.

Umpref19

[bam]

Back to first for you

[grayhawk]

Back to first for you

 

Disagree.  The runner reached second before time of pitch.  He keeps second base.

[grayhawk]

@Jayumpref19, a couple of other things:

 

1.  This is not a "timing" play (which is properly referred to as a "time" play).  A time play refers to whether or not a run scores before or after a non-force out is made for the third out of an inning.

2.  Resist the urge to refer to runners using the NFHS nomenclature.  When describing a play, R1 is the runner on first, R2 is the runner on second and R3 is the runner on third.

 

Hope this helps.

[Jayumpref19]

Sorry I missed spelled the word. What I meant is time play.

RULING: R2 is allowed to remain on second because he was there prior to the time of the pitch. The definition of "time of the pitch" determines the base to which R1 is entitl

[th3]

2nd base

[DVA7130]

Set, then stretch, then pause. I can not discern exactly what the pitcher did.

[umpcoachfather]

2nd.  Why wouldnt he. 

[NovaScotiaBlue]

.I agree with Bam. The runners actions took place on a pitch that was a Foul ball. whether he got there before the pitch was completed is not a factor. Foul ball. R1, back to first. I would rule that time of pitch starts when he contacts the rubber and begins his motion to come set.  

[umpcoachfather]

Runners action took place well before the pitch. 

[scrounge]

.I agree with Bam. The runners actions took place on a pitch that was a Foul ball. whether he got there before the pitch was completed is not a factor. Foul ball. R1, back to first. I would rule that time of pitch starts when he contacts the rubber and begins his motion to come set.  

 

You can rule that, but you'd be completely wrong. Time of pitch is a defined term, it's when the pitcher makes a motion committing him to pitch. He's NOT committed by just coming set, that's not time of pitch. What if he steps off? R1 would obviously be allowed to stay at 2B. To say that it's F1's actions before the pitch that determines what base R1 gets to occupy before the rule book definition of time of pitch makes absolutely no sense to me.

[umpcoachfather]

Indeeeeedicums. 

[Mad Mike]

+1 on Scrounge's post.

[JaxRolo]

 

.I agree with Bam. The runners actions took place on a pitch that was a Foul ball. whether he got there before the pitch was completed is not a factor. Foul ball. R1, back to first. I would rule that time of pitch starts when he contacts the rubber and begins his motion to come set.  

 

You can rule that, but you'd be completely wrong. Time of pitch is a defined term, it's when the pitcher makes a motion committing him to pitch. He's NOT committed by just coming set, that's not time of pitch. What if he steps off? R1 would obviously be allowed to stay at 2B. To say that it's F1's actions before the pitch that determines what base R1 gets to occupy before the rule book definition of time of pitch makes absolutely no sense to me.

 

^^^This^^^

 

This is a very simple rule guys. Hit the books!!!

[noumpere]

Back to first for you

??  Your a good poster, so you must have misread the play.

 

The answer is clearly second base -- and frankly I'm surprised it comes up so much and that there's been any real disagreement on it in this thread.

[bam]

I did indeed mis-read.  I was in the middle of my "post-game ritual" as well. 

[Thunderheads]

 

Back to first for you

??  Your a good poster, so you must have misread the play.

 

The answer is clearly second base -- and frankly I'm surprised it comes up so much and that there's been any real disagreement on it in this thread.

 

 

I did indeed mis-read.  I was in the middle of my "post-game ritual" as well. 

@noumpere

@bam

 

This is how you correct someone on this site, AND have a little fun with it!!  This should be a lesson to all ........... good job guys!!!

[bam]

Yeah - but he spelled "you're" wrong!!!!

[Larry in TN]

1.  This is not a "timing" play (which is properly referred to as a "time" play).  A time play refers to whether or not a run scores before or after a non-force out is made for the third out of an inning.

 

You just HAD to ruin it!  I was thinking, "Hey, maybe this finally IS the elusive "timing" play because it certainly isn't a time play!"  

[Jayumpref19]

2.28.3 SITUATION A:

R1 is on third and R2 on first with no outs. F1 contacts the pitcher's plate and assumes the set position stance. As he begins his stretch, R2 advances toward second base attempting to steal. F1 realizes R2 is stealing but he does not throw to second, fearing that R1 will break for home and score. F1 completes his stretch, coming to a pause with the ball in both hands in front of his body. R2 reaches second and rounds it, after which F1 delivers the ball to B3, who fouls a pitch into the stands.

RULING: R2 is allowed to remain on second because he was there prior to the time of the pitch. The definition of "time of the pitch" determines the base to which R1 is entitled.