Take a look at this video: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XMYejsgJCmk&feature=related
This was obviously a few years ago. Has the FPSR changed in NCAA in recent years? I haven't been at this long enough to know either way. F1 sliding past second base is not illegal now, but was it before? The announcers are basically claiming that the FED slide rule was in effect at this time and F1 should be out for interference. (I know, announcers are clueless)
Also, do you have interference for F1 grabbing at the backside of the pivot man on the double play? I didn't think he touched him at first, but they eventually showed an angle and he did make slight contact.
On a ground ball when the defense is trying to turn a double play, how do we rule on a runner that doesn't slide? Obviously by rule they are not required to slide, but is there any good rule or guidance on where we draw the line and say they interfered with a throw for an attempted double play?
I've always taken the approach that if the runner is in the immediate vicinity of the base and alters play it could be interference. Otherwise, I figure the fielder has ample opportunity to make a quality throw without being affected by the runner.
I don't find any examples of this type of play in the Case Book, but if I've missed something, please point me in the right direction.
Reviewing the guidelines for an illegal slide....letter "f" caught my eye
"f. the runner, on a force play, does not slide on the ground and in a direct line between the two bases."
To those of you out there who work NFHS baseball.
On a double play ball is letter "f" to be interpreted as a violation of FPSR if R1 goes in standing to 2B past the halfway point?
Is there an NFHS interpretation to support a violation or no violation?
In my mind, I read it as the NFHS wanting the runners to get down or veer away to avoid an overzealous middle infielder slinging the baseball into R1 chest or face. A preventative safety measure.
A 2007 NFHS Interpretation States the following but doesn't necessarily apply to the question being asked:
SITUATION 3: With no outs and R1 on first base, B2 hits a hard ground ball to F6. F6 fields the ball and steps on second base and then throws to first base in an attempt to double up B2. R1 is running standing up in a straight line to second and is hit by F6's throw. R1 was not even half way to second base and did not intentionally interfere with the throw. The defensive coach states that B2 should also be out since R1 violated the force-play slide rule. RULING: This is not a violation of the force play slide rule. R1 cannot be expected to slide at that point in the base path. The play stands. R1 would be out only if he intentionally interfered. (8-4-2b penalty)
2016 BRD Childress seems to support the assertion.
What are your thoughts?
I am confused about the ruling on these two plays from BRD. I hope it's OK to post these:
*Play 170-329:FED only. R1 moving on the pitch. B1 hits to the shortstop, who tries - not in time - for the out at second. The second baseman throws the ball to first, after which R1 pops-up on the base, jostling the fielder. Ruling: Though the contact occurred after the throw and did not alter the play, it resulted from an illegal slide: Both R1 and B1 are out.
*Play 173-229: R1 stealing. B1 grounds slowly to F6, whose throw to second is not in time. R1 then executes a pop-up slide while F6 is on top of the base, preventing the second baseman from throwing to first. Ruling: (EXPANDED) In Fed/OBR, R1 is out, but B1 goes to first.
**(ADDED) Note 321: Since R1 beat the throw, no double play is possible. In FED/OBR, then, only the interfering runner can be out. It's simply interference by a runner (one is out), not a retired runner (two would be out).
These two plays are very close to being the same. In the first play, it does not state whether or not B1 was thrown out on the play, but if R1 committed an illegal slide, then it wouldn't matter - B1 is out regardless. Note 321 is very confusing, however, because it says that "since R1 beat the throw" - this is the case in both plays.
Also, in the first play, there was contact but the play was NOT altered. In the second play, there was no contact but the play WAS altered.
Can anyone shed some light on this? Also, I would recommend BRD to anyone and everyone who is serious about learning the rules - even if you only umpire under one jurisdiction. It's a fantastic piece of work.