Longtime lurker, active umpire. NFHS rules. R1/R2, 2 out.
Clean, sharply hit single to the outfield. R2 rounds third. An accurate throw home beats R2 by 20 feet. R2 stops and reverses course.
In the ensuing rundown between 3B and HP, R2 is obstructed. PU properly calls and signals, "That's obstruction!" but it's NFHS (delayed dead ball) so play on. Note: No one involved in the play argued the obstruction call itself; everyone agreed it was genuine.
After the act of obstruction, R2 made it back to the 3B bag without being tagged out - only to find it occupied by R1.
R1, knowing the trail runner is the one in jeopardy whenever two runners occupy a base, now attempted to retreat to 2B. (The batter-runner had remained at 1B.) One quick snap throw and R1 is tagged out for Out #3.
Time is called. PU scores R2 on the obstruction and awards R1 third base, intending to continue play with R1/R3, 2 out.
DHC comes out to argue, saying R1 should've seen/heard the obstruction call and known he could remain on 3B; moreover, since it's a timing play and the 3rd out was recorded (on R1) before R2 could be awarded home, the inning should be over with no runs scoring. DHC is not profane, but his argument is persistent and prolonged - he's adamant PU has misapplied the rule - and PU ends up ejecting DHC.
Most of the umpires I've talked to say that neither one was right: R2's run award counts, then the third out applies and it's side retired.
Which of the three perspectives is correct? I was not personally involved but want to know the rulebook support.
Question
ValleyUmp
Longtime lurker, active umpire. NFHS rules. R1/R2, 2 out.
Clean, sharply hit single to the outfield. R2 rounds third. An accurate throw home beats R2 by 20 feet. R2 stops and reverses course.
In the ensuing rundown between 3B and HP, R2 is obstructed. PU properly calls and signals, "That's obstruction!" but it's NFHS (delayed dead ball) so play on. Note: No one involved in the play argued the obstruction call itself; everyone agreed it was genuine.
After the act of obstruction, R2 made it back to the 3B bag without being tagged out - only to find it occupied by R1.
R1, knowing the trail runner is the one in jeopardy whenever two runners occupy a base, now attempted to retreat to 2B. (The batter-runner had remained at 1B.) One quick snap throw and R1 is tagged out for Out #3.
Time is called. PU scores R2 on the obstruction and awards R1 third base, intending to continue play with R1/R3, 2 out.
DHC comes out to argue, saying R1 should've seen/heard the obstruction call and known he could remain on 3B; moreover, since it's a timing play and the 3rd out was recorded (on R1) before R2 could be awarded home, the inning should be over with no runs scoring. DHC is not profane, but his argument is persistent and prolonged - he's adamant PU has misapplied the rule - and PU ends up ejecting DHC.
Most of the umpires I've talked to say that neither one was right: R2's run award counts, then the third out applies and it's side retired.
Which of the three perspectives is correct? I was not personally involved but want to know the rulebook support.
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The Man in Blue
The tag does not necessarily signify an out, it signifies the point where the delayed dead ball becomes a dead ball. In the OP, I'm scoring R2 and leaving R1 on third base, but there is more to t
BLWizzRanger
The rundown and obstruction occurred between third and home. You don't get to 'believe' R2 would have scored. You award the one base from the last base the runner legally obtained. But, in th
ValleyUmp
Longtime lurker, active umpire. NFHS rules. R1/R2, 2 out. Clean, sharply hit single to the outfield. R2 rounds third. An accurate throw home beats R2 by 20 feet. R2 stops and reverses course.
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