Runner called for interference with shortstop

[Guest Alex]

So I was playing a game on 60-90 and I was on second base with two outs and the batter hits it in between the shortstop and third baseman. The ball already passed me and shortstop had no chance to make a play but hits me and I was called out for interference. Was that the right call?

[SH0102]

6 hours ago, Guest Alex said:

So I was playing a game on 60-90 and I was on second base with two outs and the batter hits it in between the shortstop and third baseman. The ball already passed me and shortstop had no chance to make a play but hits me and I was called out for interference. Was that the right call?

I am slightly confused how the ball had already passed you, but then hit you....?

But to answer your question...how do you know that both F5 and F6 had no chance to field it?  If the umpire judged either had a chance, even a small one, then by rule you are out.

You had part of the rule correct about being able to make a play, but that standard only applies after it the ball has passed an infielder (not counting the pitcher)

So if SS was playing in on the grass, ball was hit past him, then hits you, you are still out if umpire judges the 3B had a chance...if not, then it’s a live ball.

From your description, sounds like fielders were behind you, so yes, the umpire was correct

[maven]

Yes, correct call.

[noumpere]

7 hours ago, Guest Alex said:

So I was playing a game on 60-90 and I was on second base with two outs and the batter hits it in between the shortstop and third baseman. The ball already passed me and shortstop had no chance to make a play but hits me and I was called out for interference. Was that the right call?

I'm confused -- did the ball hit you or did the shortstop hit you?

 

And, what rules were you using?  If the ball hit you, it might matter.

57 minutes ago, SH0102 said:

I am slightly confused how the ball had already passed you, but then hit you....?

But to answer your question...how do you know that both F5 and F6 had no chance to field it?  If the umpire judged either had a chance, even a small one, then by rule you are out.

You had part of the rule correct about being able to make a play, but that standard only applies after it the ball has passed an infielder (not counting the pitcher)

So if SS was playing in on the grass, ball was hit past him, then hits you, you are still out if umpire judges the 3B had a chance...if not, then it’s a live ball.

From your description, sounds like fielders were behind you, so yes, the umpire was correct

Under OBR, "passed" in this rule means "the ball went through or immediately by" the fielder -- in such a case, the runner would have a reasonable expectation that the fielder would glove the ball so the runner is protected from unintentional contact with the ball (that's the first exception to "a runner is out when hit by the ball").  However, if another fielder has a play, then the fielder might choose to let that other fielder make a play, so the runner is still liable (that's the exception to the exception.)

Under FED, "passed" means "the ball goes farther from the plate than an imaginary string from F3-F4-F6-F5" (under normal defensive alignments).  That seems to be (but maybe I am misreading this) what SHO102 is describing

[Guest NJ Coach]

I think he meant the shortstop hit him after the ball passed that fielder.

[noumpere]

3 minutes ago, Guest NJ Coach said:

I think he meant the shortstop hit him after the ball passed that fielder.

IF that's true, and IF the ball had passed (not the same definition of "passed" as above) the shortstop, then the shortstop can no longer be protected and this is likely OBS.

[SH0102]

If that is what he meant, then I completely mis-understood his original post.  So going with the SS (F6) being the one who hit him and not the ball, then that changes the replies:

1)  The ball passing you is pretty much irrelevant to this situation

2)  The only question is, was F6 a protected fielder in the process of fielding the ball or making an attempt to field the ball?

If the umpire called you out for INT, then the umpire judged that F6 was protected and was still trying to field the batted ball.

You (the runner) said that F6 had no chance to field the ball, which is your "judgment".  The umpire had his.

Now, if the ball had already passed the shortstop and was in the outfield, or truly was so far from F6 that he had no chance at the ball, then clearly there is no judgment anymore and the umpire messed up.

[aaluck]

It would seem to me that IF the ball had already passed him and THEN the shortstop ran into him there would be nothing. However, if this is all happening in a split second, then probably have INT. Like most posts kinda have to see it to give you a more accurate answer. 

[noumpere]

3 minutes ago, aaluck said:

It would seem to me that IF the ball had already passed him and THEN the shortstop ran into him there would be nothing. However, if this is all happening in a split second, then probably have INT. Like most posts kinda have to see it to give you a more accurate answer. 

Pretty sure this has to be something, unless the description of "hits me" is completely off base.

[aaluck]

47 minutes ago, noumpere said:

Pretty sure this has to be something, unless the description of "hits me" is completely off base.

Probably right. I meant no INT. I kind of imagine this as two guys bumping into each other and moving on. 

[noumpere]

24 minutes ago, aaluck said:

Probably right. I meant no INT. I kind of imagine this as two guys bumping into each other and moving on. 

So,it has to be OBS(given the current assumptions on what happened).

[beerguy55]

13 hours ago, Guest Alex said:

So I was playing a game on 60-90 and I was on second base with two outs and the batter hits it in between the shortstop and third baseman. The ball already passed me and shortstop had no chance to make a play but hits me and I was called out for interference. Was that the right call?

You're gonna have to describe this better...you may  have noticed everyone is kind of guessing and filling in the blanks on what really happened...because it all matters.  I'm trying to figure out where F6 would have been positioned where you and he would collide on a ball between F5 and F6, that has gone past you....usually R2 and and F6 collide when the ball is behind R2, towards second base, or when F6 is charging into the ball, across the running lane...in this case both you and F6 should be going in the same general direction....and if the ball is past you there's no reason for him to cross your path....unless he's on the inner grass, which would be an odd place for him to be.  

Where were you, in relation to 2nd and 3rd, and in relation to F5 and F6?

Where was F5?

Where was F6?

Where was the ball?

It sounds to me like F5 and F6 were on the infield grass (though why on Earth would they be there with two out??)...the ball went between and past them...and passed in front of you, and then F6 turned and collided with you??   If that's what happened it's probably OBS by F6, not INT by you.   The only other way I see this happening is F6 collides with you as he is running into the infield grass to get ready for a cutoff...also OBS.

[Vegas_Ump]

Rule 7.08(f):  A runner is out when......touched by a fair batted ball in fair territory before it has touched or passed an infielder.  (Some exceptions and notes also there.)

A few years ago, this subparagraph had some language that created some interesting firestorms on boards like this.  

In the discussion of "passed an infielder", the pitcher does not count, and if the infielders are drawn in, yes you do have some interesting judgments to make on where any fielder was w/r/t to the bounding ball.  It does not matter if F5 or F6 could have made a spectacular play or not!  If the ball has not passed them, this rule applies.

The interference call is more definitional.  That is, a runner hit by a batted ball has not necessarily interfered with a fielder;  he just got hit by a fair batted ball in fair territory.  Could he have interfered with a fielder?  Yes!  But then he's called out by the Definitional Offensive interference.  (A different rule applies.)  [Stuff like this happens a lot in the rule of baseball:  you think one rule applies and another really does, and someone is unhappy.  Try pondering Batter Interference rules and the necessary conditions that must apply.]

Mike

Las Vegas

[beerguy55]

18 minutes ago, Vegas_Ump said:

Rule 7.08(f):  A runner is out when......touched by a fair batted ball in fair territory before it has touched or passed an infielder.  (Some exceptions and notes also there.)

A few years ago, this subparagraph had some language that created some interesting firestorms on boards like this.  

In the discussion of "passed an infielder", the pitcher does not count, and if the infielders are drawn in, yes you do have some interesting judgments to make on where any fielder was w/r/t to the bounding ball.  It does not matter if F5 or F6 could have made a spectacular play or not!  If the ball has not passed them, this rule applies.

The interference call is more definitional.  That is, a runner hit by a batted ball has not necessarily interfered with a fielder;  he just got hit by a fair batted ball in fair territory.  Could he have interfered with a fielder?  Yes!  But then he's called out by the Definitional Offensive interference.  (A different rule applies.)  [Stuff like this happens a lot in the rule of baseball:  you think one rule applies and another really does, and someone is unhappy.  Try pondering Batter Interference rules and the necessary conditions that must apply.]

Mike

Las Vegas

The ball didn't hit the runner, the fielder did.   "The ball already passed me"