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Posted

On the test, one of the videos F1 doing an inside move with R2 only and catching the runner off base.  F1 throws to F6 as R2 takes off for third.  R2 is able to make it back to second safely.

The answer options are:

A.  Legal play. "Coach, the runner might move toward 3rd base which, in my judgment, constitutes an attempt to advance, so the pitcher's step is legal."
B.  Call a balk and let the play proceed. When the rundown ends, if R2 doesn't advance a base safely, call time and award him 3rd base.
C.  The pitcher legally deceived the runner. R2 is out.
D.  Call a balk and as soon as the pickoff is caught by the infielder, call time and award all runners one base from the base occupied at the time of the pitch.

My feeling is that F1 stepped towards third base (and the runner merely took a secondary lead - he was not advancing) and it should be a balk, so my answer is D above.  Anyone else have something different?

Posted

I answered 'D' as well, but I'm anticipating it's incorrect. Didn't like that one at all. 

Posted

This clip also contains video from 2 different plays.  In the first play (shown from 2 different angles) F1 completes a throw to F6 and a rundown ensues.  In the second play F1 only feints the throw.  It seems odd to show 2 plays.  Especially when, what appears to be the correct answer contains language ("as soon as the pickoff is caught by the infielder"), doesn't happen in the second play. 

Posted
to me this is a balk, cause he started his motion towards home.. when that legs hangs and starts coming down in a attempt to start towards home plate, then turns towards 2nd.. balk...

I had him going towards home as well.

Posted
2 hours ago, VBlue71 said:

This clip also contains video from 2 different plays.  In the first play (shown from 2 different angles) F1 completes a throw to F6 and a rundown ensues.  In the second play F1 only feints the throw.  It seems odd to show 2 plays.  Especially when, what appears to be the correct answer contains language ("as soon as the pickoff is caught by the infielder"), doesn't happen in the second play. 

I think the 2nd play was intended to show the runner was STILL on base and NOT put out.??? 

Posted

I didn't even see the video and the only logical answer is D.

A.  Contains some incorrect rule wording (" the runner might move toward 3rd base")

B  .If you have a balk, you don't let play proceed.

C.  R2 wasn't retired

So, none of those can be true.

 

D has nothing wrong, assuming it was a balk -- and the comments here indicate that it certainly was close enough to believe that there should have been one.

  • Like 1
Posted

if the ball isn't caught by a infielder you have a delay dead ball, but if an infielder secures the ball its a dead ball right away and award runners bases.  Rule: 9.3.2 pg 92

 

BTW I agree the answer is D.

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