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Posted

R1 is stealing, catcher gets up and reaches way in over the plate to catch the pitch and throw to 2B, runner is safe.  Batter made no attempt to swing.  Is this still catcher's interference to which the rule of batter get 1B would apply, similar to the batter swinging and the bat touches the catcher's mitt.

In other words no swing or attempted swing is required by the batter for this kind of catcher's interference to be called, if the catcher reaches into the strike zone, whether the batter attempts to swing or nor CI is still applicable, correct?

Posted

You don't mention the code you're using. OBR does not provide much guidance on CI: a fingernail over the plate is probably not enough; F2 stepping on the plate definitely is. No swing required in that case.

FED is more explicit and offers some examples, and mentions stepping on or over the plate. "the catcher or any ­fielder obstructs the batter, such as stepping on or across home or pushing the batter to reach the pitch or touching the bat." 8-3-1c

Posted

From FED Case Book:

8.1.1 SITUATION F: R1 is on second base. After B2 takes his position in batter’s box, F2 clearly reaches out over home plate (a) prior to; (b) after F1 has made a movement that has committed him to pitch; or (c) to receive the pitch. RULING: It is catcher obstruction in both (b) and (c), and B2 is awarded first base and R1 is awarded third base only if he was stealing on the pitch. F2 may not catch the pitch until it has passed home plate. In (a), there is no violation provided F2 and his equipment are removed from the area over home plate before pitcher has made a movement that committed him to pitch. (8-3-1c)

Posted

Ran across this and I'm a little confused as to what the call was here. F2 didn't step on home or reach over the plate, although he did come way up in front. Help?

 

Posted

For starters it's a balk, catcher outside the catcher's box when the ball is released. But evidently the balk would be nullified by the interference, as R1 is forced to 2nd by the award of 1st to the BR. 

Posted
4 minutes ago, kstrunk said:

For starters it's a balk, catcher outside the catcher's box when the ball is released. But evidently the balk would be nullified by the interference, as R1 is forced to 2nd by the award of 1st to the BR. 

1. Is there anything in OBR that explains this type of CI?

2. Why is it CI? F2 didn't let the ball travel past the plate? 

Posted

Some others will chime in hopefully, but I'm thinking that the quality of the pitch is NOT a consideration with Catcher's interference. Can't look it up right now. 

Posted
48 minutes ago, kstrunk said:

For starters it's a balk, catcher outside the catcher's box when the ball is released. But evidently the balk would be nullified by the interference, as R1 is forced to 2nd by the award of 1st to the BR. 

Uh, it's only a balk if an IBB is in progress or a runner is coming home. Straight foward CI. But really not straight foward.

Posted

And it's not measured when the ball is released, it's when the pitch begins.  OBR 6.02(a)(12): " (12) The pitcher, while giving an intentional base on balls, pitches when the catcher is not in the catcher’s box".

Posted

Grateful for the correction. Hard to understand why I didn't remember that. 

Posted
8 hours ago, MooseLoop said:

And it's not measured when the ball is released, it's when the pitch begins.  OBR 6.02(a)(12): " (12) The pitcher, while giving an intentional base on balls, pitches when the catcher is not in the catcher’s box".

You are correct that the catcher can leave the box at TOP but it's not because of that rule. 5.02(a) specifies release of ball. But official interps allow TOP. And common sense and authoritative guidance says that that's the last rule you are looking to enforce in a game.

  • Like 1
Posted
5 hours ago, Jimurray said:

You are correct that the catcher can leave the box at TOP but it's not because of that rule. 5.02(a) specifies release of ball. But official interps allow TOP. And common sense and authoritative guidance says that that's the last rule you are looking to enforce in a game.

It's in both rules.

Posted
On Thursday, June 23, 2016 at 11:44 AM, Stk004 said:

1. Is there anything in OBR that explains this type of CI?

2. Why is it CI? F2 didn't let the ball travel past the plate? 

I'd still like to know why this sort of thing is CI

Posted
5 hours ago, Stk004 said:

I'd still like to know why this sort of thing is CI

Because it's generally interpreted the same as in FED.  The literal OBR has it only during a squeeze or steal of home, but enforce it during any steal.

Posted
5 hours ago, Stk004 said:

I'd still like to know why this sort of thing is CI

Because it hinders the batter's opportunity to strike at the pitch.

  • Like 2
Posted
1 hour ago, maven said:

Because it hinders the batter's opportunity to strike at the pitch.

Thank you Maven:yippie:

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