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R1 Hit By Ball

Guest Rook

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Guest Rook

Guest Rook

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Had this happen in a 12U game. Rule set is OBR with a few modifications (none which affects the situation). BR hits a line drive down the first base line. R1 retreats to 1B and the ball hits the bag and then goes up and hits R1 in the leg. We ruled interference. Coach argued that the runner was protected because he was on the base (which is not correct) but in our post game we questioned if the ball hitting the bag first did matter.

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pnewton

pnewton

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Ball hitting base is meaningless, other than confirming that the runner was struck by a fair ball.  Just be sure that the ball hadn't passed F3 at the time.

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Richvee

Richvee

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Posted

The only thing that would matter is, if F3 was playing in front of the bag, and F4 had no chance to make a play on the ball. Then it would be nothing unless the contact was intentional. Otherwise, INT on R1, BR gets 1B, all other runners return to TOP base. 

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grayhawk

grayhawk

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Posted

It doesn't matter unless F3 was playing in and F4 had no chance to field the ball.  The requirement is that the batted ball must pass "through or by" an infielder with no other infielder having a chance to field it to relieve the runner from being called for interference if hit by a batted ball.

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noumpere

noumpere

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It doesn't matter unless F3 was playing in and F4 had no chance to field the ball.  The requirement is that the batted ball must pass "through or by" an infielder with no other infielder having a chance to field it to relieve the runner from being called for interference if hit by a batted ball.

Assuming OBR that is correct.

 

FED (and NCAA, I think)  have it different.

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ALStripes17

ALStripes17

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Posted

It doesn't matter unless F3 was playing in and F4 had no chance to field the ball. The requirement is that the batted ball must pass "through or by" an infielder with no other infielder having a chance to field it to relieve the runner from being called for interference if hit by a batted ball.

Assuming OBR that is correct.

FED (and NCAA, I think) have it different.

FED rules the same as OBR here (in regards to if the batted ball is past IF when it hits R1)

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noumpere

noumpere

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Posted

 

 

It doesn't matter unless F3 was playing in and F4 had no chance to field the ball. The requirement is that the batted ball must pass "through or by" an infielder with no other infielder having a chance to field it to relieve the runner from being called for interference if hit by a batted ball.

Assuming OBR that is correct.

FED (and NCAA, I think) have it different.

 

FED rules the same as OBR here (in regards to if the batted ball is past IF when it hits R1)

 

No, they don't.

 

Play:  Infield in.  Batteed ball between F3 and F4 (neither had a play on the ball) hits R1.  Ruling: OBR -- R1 is out.  FED:  Play on.

 

FED uses the "string theory" -- draw a line from F3 to F4 to F6 to F5 -- if the ball passes that, the runner is (usually) safe.

 

OBR uses the theory that the runner needs to avoid the ball, unless he has a reasonable expectation that a fielder in front of him should have fielded it, and even in the exception if another fielder has a chance to field it.

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ALStripes17

ALStripes17

Posted
Posted

It doesn't matter unless F3 was playing in and F4 had no chance to field the ball. The requirement is that the batted ball must pass "through or by" an infielder with no other infielder having a chance to field it to relieve the runner from being called for interference if hit by a batted ball.
Assuming OBR that is correct.

FED (and NCAA, I think) have it different.

FED rules the same as OBR here (in regards to if the batted ball is past IF when it hits R1)

No, they don't.

Play: Infield in. Batteed ball between F3 and F4 (neither had a play on the ball) hits R1. Ruling: OBR -- R1 is out. FED: Play on.

FED uses the "string theory" -- draw a line from F3 to F4 to F6 to F5 -- if the ball passes that, the runner is (usually) safe.

OBR uses the theory that the runner needs to avoid the ball, unless he has a reasonable expectation that a fielder in front of him should have fielded it, and even in the exception if another fielder has a chance to field it.

Yes! Ok, knew that. Misread the 'between fielders' part

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Guest Juan

Guest Juan

Posted
Posted
He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder.
 
Wouldn't this mean in the play above that the runner is NOT out?
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noumpere

noumpere

Posted
Posted

 

He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder.
 
Wouldn't this mean in the play above that the runner is NOT out?

 

No, it would not mena that.

 

"Passed" jas a specific meaning in OBR.  See the above posts for details.

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