Jump to content

ALStripes17

Established Member
  • Posts

    1,754
  • Joined

  • Last visited

  • Days Won

    9

Community Answers

  1. ALStripes17's post in new umpire was marked as the answer   
    If, in the umpires' judgement, the fly ball could have been caught by an infielder with ordinary effort, then it should be deemed an infield fly. Nothing in the rule book prescribes judging communications between fielders or their ensuing 3-stooges antics.

    Sent from my XT1254 using Tapatalk

  2. ALStripes17's post in stealing home plus drop 3rd strike, major league rules. was marked as the answer   
    The Run does not count. The batter was the third out before safely reaching first base.


    Same as if the batter hit a ground ball to the infield and they threw him out at 1B for the 3rd out
    Sent from my XT1254 using Tapatalk
  3. ALStripes17's post in Illegal Feint? was marked as the answer   
    No... NCAA and HS rules both still allow a fake to 3B (which encompasses the '31' move that everyone knows and loves).


    And the pitcher is allowed to do a jump-spin, jab-step, step and throw to 1B for a pickoff move. As always, it is illegal for him to feint these moves to 1B as he (the pitcher) has not disengaged the rubber with a bona fide step back with the pivot foot.
  4. ALStripes17's post in Force outs was marked as the answer   
    This is an appeal of a runner not retouching after a caught batted ball. If the run scored before the appeal at 1B, then the run counts. This is not a force play by definition, which is 'runners being forced to advance due to the batter becoming a runner. The runner originally on 1B is not forced back to 1B haha
  5. ALStripes17's post in Infield fly rule was marked as the answer   
    Correct. There's no force as the batter was called out on the IFF. Any out at that point becomes a time play. Did the run score before the 3rd out was made? If yes, count it. If no, don't.
  6. ALStripes17's post in Another entitled to the "Batters Box" Question was marked as the answer   
    Nothing in both, play on.
    Potential ejection for the catcher in 1 if deemed intentional.
    Sent from my XT1254 using Tapatalk
  7. ALStripes17's post in R3 and R1 Tag up with 1 out was marked as the answer   
    This would be an appeal play and not a force play.

    Did R3 score before the out on R1 was made? If yes, then the run counts. If no, then no run.

    This is what umpires call a 'time play'
  8. ALStripes17's post in Does run count - force play / run down was marked as the answer   
    No, all runners must successfully obtain the base to which they are forced.

    No run in all codes of baseball
  9. ALStripes17's post in Force at second base was marked as the answer   
    Does the umpire call runners safe at 1B bc the first basemen touches it with his foot? Exact same concept.

    Runner should be out on the force as long as SS has ball in possession and touches 2B with some part of his body.
×
×
  • Create New...