Jump to content


Established Member
  • Posts

  • Joined

  • Last visited

Community Answers

  1. pnewton's post in Fair or foul was marked as the answer   
    Foul ball. Ball was first touched over foul ground without having passed first or third. The fact that it touched the plate is meaningless.
  2. pnewton's post in advancing a baserunner was marked as the answer   
    So "sharp and direct" from the bat to the glove and is caught. This is the rule book definition of a foul tip. It's strike two and the runner may advance. In other words treat it like a swing and miss as long as the catcher legally caught the pitch.
    Many people use the term foul tip incorrectly, but this is actually it.
  3. pnewton's post in Base award on errant pickoff was marked as the answer   
    A) 1 base
    B) 2 bases (not on pitcher's plate makes him an infielder)
    C) 1 base (this is considered still on the pitcher's plate)
    The base awards are among the most important rules, know them!
  4. pnewton's post in Can the player be suspended was marked as the answer   
    Many leagues have mandatory suspensions for players and/or coaches that are ejected. Many of these leagues also allow for post game ejections which would bring about thiat suspension. So in a round about way yes, but not directly.
  5. pnewton's post in When is a Sac fly a Sac fly? was marked as the answer   
    That run counts.  The out at first is not a force out.  You use the term "any standard double play" which is not a term found or used in the rule book.  Runs do not score on a play where the third out is made either on a force out or the batter before reaching first base.  The batter was the second out when the fly ball was caught so that's clearly not the third out.  By definition a runner is never forced to retreat, only to advance when the batter becomes a runner (the batter was already out so that isn't happening here either).  The out at first is, by rule, an appeal and not a force.  
    I hope you were on the correct side of that argument!
  6. pnewton's post in H20Dad was marked as the answer   
    Short answer is no.
    The runner from first is "forced" to advance. Because he was put out before reaching the base he was forced to for the third out no runs score on the play. The fact that he was tagged as opposed to tagging second base is meaningless.
  7. pnewton's post in Pre-out Ejection was marked as the answer   
    The substitute assumes the count and finishes the at bat.
  8. pnewton's post in R1 Hit By Ball was marked as the answer   
    Ball hitting base is meaningless, other than confirming that the runner was struck by a fair ball.  Just be sure that the ball hadn't passed F3 at the time.
  9. pnewton's post in Interference, stolen base, or strike three was marked as the answer   
    Strike three, batter out, inning over, run does not score (batter makes 3rd out before reaching first).
  10. pnewton's post in Bunt attempt. Ball hits bat twice. was marked as the answer   
    Foul ball as I interpret situation - OBR 6.05(h) "... If the batter is in a legal position in the batter’s box, see Rule 6.03, and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, a batted ball that strikes the batter or his bat shall be ruled a foul ball"
  11. pnewton's post in Breaking the plane was marked as the answer   
    It is't that his right foot was going behind his left leg as much as it is his right foot going behind the pitcher's plate (rubber).  Rule is cited straight from OBR.
    If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when --
    (a) The pitcher, while touching his plate, makes any motion naturally associated with his pitch and fails to make such delivery;
    Rule 8.05(a) Comment: If a lefthanded or righthanded pitcher swings his free foot past the back edge of the pitchers rubber, he is required to pitch to the batter except to throw to second base on a pick-off-play.
  • Create New...