pnewton

No run. Third out made on batter before legal reaching 1st base.

Umpire needs to judge if the batter was trying to hit the ball or not. OBR give no more specific advice or guidance on this.

Why not? It doesn't seem smart and that's a long way to have to run to second base, so I'll assume the defense can just make the play and put out the runner.

Yes, any runner forced out. Doesn't matter how the batter is put out - only if they are out before reaching first base (btw the definition of a force causes some issues with my answer, but I think it gets op the info they are looking for)

If the runner scores on the play before the third out is recorded the run counts UNLESS: 1. The third out was a force; or 2. The third out was made on the batter before they have safely reached first base

My question is how many of these coaches remain convinced they were right and sat around at the end of the season saying 'you won't believe the things umpires got wrong this year, here are some of the worst...'

It's Kevin Youkilis (first clip, Red Sox broadcast). I have not enjoyed him as a broadcaster in the limited number of games he has worked (that I have seen).

Why go for second? Why not just run into right field. Look up "skunk in the outfield" - this is a known trick-play. In your scenario one could argue that the runner from first has passed the runner on second, at least if the continuation was toward/into left field. Abandonment also becomes a possible call at some point.

So in the Larry Walker play, his retrieving the ball was useless as time would be called as soon as the ball touched a fan. In that case runners would advance two bases from where they were when Larry threw the ball (just like if it were an overthrow from an outfielder trying to make a play). In your hypothetical the play is over as soon as the ball touches something in the bullpen (to be ruled a home run), it would make no difference if a player went in there to get it.

That is a true statement.

As long as the events occured in the exact order you say, this is a triple play. The runner on second was forced, meaning he can't stay there, and second base is no longer a "safe haven" If the shortstop had tagged second base first the force would be removed and the runner would now be able to use the base as a safe haven. This is why the order of events matters.

This is when the ejection needed to happen. 10u there is no profanity, it's one of the 3 Ps.

I don't know of any mechanics that have anyone other than the plate umpire handle calls before 1st or 3rd base. If the base umpire is in the A-position, they likely rule on a ball passing first base.

As described, I have a balk here. A fake to 3rd while still engaged is a balk in any situation in OBR. In the rule sets the allow it, it's a judgement call as to whether a play was actually being attempted.

I haven't umpired in a few years now but I remember that an infield fly is like anything else except that the batter is already out. I read OP to say the ball was caught, so why isn't this a valid appeal? Editing to add: I read OP as a tag-up appeal... It's possible that isn't what OP meant which would change my comment.