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Posted

R1, no outs. The right-handed pitcher balks by buckling his knee before he steps off the rubber and throws to 1st base attempting to pick off R1. The umpires correctly call a balk. The pitcher's throw to first base is wild and goes into the dugout and out of play.

 

a. R1 is awarded 3rd base because the pitcher was off the rubber when he made the throw to first. The pitcher is considered an infielder in this case and the award is two bases from the time of the throw.

 

b. R1 is awarded home and allowed to score. The ruling is that he gets one base for the balk and two bases for the ball being thrown out of play.

 

c. Call time immediately upon calling the balk. Award R1 second base.

 

d. Because the balk was called, R1 is awarded 2nd base.

Posted

The thread is in the "Collegiate" Section.

 

If the throw to 1B is a single motion (no pause after the knee buckle), the correct answer for NCAA/OBR is (a).

  • Like 1
Posted

The thread is in the "Collegiate" Section.

 

If the throw to 1B is a single motion (no pause after the knee buckle), the correct answer for NCAA/OBR is (a).

 

oops sorry

 

I guess FED and NCAA are using the same questions!!!!!

Posted

Our discussion here, if you care, was along the lines that almost by definition the knee buckle and step off had to be two separate moves (so it can't be A).  But if they were, then it's a balk and answers C and D are really the same (so it must be A)

Posted

guys this is pretty simple.  If you see a balk in college its a delayed dead ball... yes so he balked just like the questions says.  Knee pop, no stop, shoulders, etc.... he continues to throw to first and throws it out of play.  R1 now has second and awarded 3rd on the ball out of play.  it's pretty cut and dry.  I know A is correct and the theres the rule reference.  Take it as you like, just trying to help guys who maybe in a pinch with less then a week to go.

Posted

guys this is pretty simple.  If you see a balk in college its a delayed dead ball... yes so he balked just like the questions says.  Knee pop, no stop, shoulders, etc.... he continues to throw to first and throws it out of play.  R1 now has second and awarded 3rd on the ball out of play.  it's pretty cut and dry.  I know A is correct and the theres the rule reference.  Take it as you like, just trying to help guys who maybe in a pinch with less then a week to go.

 

How much time between the knee pop and balk call, and then F1 then stepping back would you allow before calling time?  I agree if it all happens quickly, in basically one continuous action that you let it play out.  But if you call a balk and a couple of seconds elapses before he steps back, I think killing it makes sense.

Posted

if any pitcher takes a couple of second sure b/c by then you've called balk and he'll stop.  Look at the spirit of the question guys it happens fast in college baseball.  If he pops (thats a balk) 1.2.3. step off throw..... really.... Knee pops happen right before a pick to get the runner to bite. 

Posted

IMO, Im looking for the same complete, discernable stop to kill it as I am to call the balk. Make sense?

Posted

First instinct tells me that this is third base because the only reason he'd throw over to first is that he buckled his knee intending to pick off R1.

 

 

Reading into it more makes me think that if the buckle happens, and then he steps off in two distinct separate movements, then we call the balk, kill it and award R1 second base. 

 

I'm going to put third base for the two base award on a thrown ball by an infielder that goes out of play.

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