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Interference prior to BR reaching 1st


DevildogUmp

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So, video on YouTube getting some argument in regards to the following play:

OBR R3/2 outs - pop fly on the 3rd base line, R3 interferes catcher while the ball is still in the air for 3rd out. No problems there. The question is who leads off the next inning and does it matter if the ball was touched fair or foul after the interference. 

When I started digging this is what I think I found: 

1. The interference rule doesn't actually place the batter-runner at first when the interference with a fielder occurs prior to him reaching 1st - "Penalty for Interference: The runner is out and the ball is dead. If the umpire declares the batter, batter-runner, or a runner out for interference, all other runners shall return to the last base that was in the judgement of the umpire legally touched at the time of interference."(page 65) - even though it is done in practice.

2. When a fair ball touches a runner prior to touching an infielder, by rule we place the batter-runner at 1st - 5.05(b)(4)

3. On an infield fly with interference, we wait for the fair/foul status to rule on whether to get 2 or put the batter back in the box (infield fly definition)

So everything in my gut says the fair/foul status of this hit needs to be determined to make the correct ruling:

1. If fair, the BR completed his at-bat, because he was placed at first due to runner's interference with the catcher.

2. If foul, the BR did not complete his at-bat, because it was a foul ball and he leads off the next inning.

My problem is that I can't find anything that backs up my gut. Am I looking in the wrong places or am I just wrong?

Matt

 

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22 minutes ago, DevildogUmp said:

So, video on YouTube getting some argument in regards to the following play:

OBR R3/2 outs - pop fly on the 3rd base line, R3 interferes catcher while the ball is still in the air for 3rd out. No problems there. The question is who leads off the next inning and does it matter if the ball was touched fair or foul after the interference. 

When I started digging this is what I think I found: 

1. The interference rule doesn't actually place the batter-runner at first when the interference with a fielder occurs prior to him reaching 1st - "Penalty for Interference: The runner is out and the ball is dead. If the umpire declares the batter, batter-runner, or a runner out for interference, all other runners shall return to the last base that was in the judgement of the umpire legally touched at the time of interference."(page 65) - even though it is done in practice.

2. When a fair ball touches a runner prior to touching an infielder, by rule we place the batter-runner at 1st - 5.05(b)(4)

3. On an infield fly with interference, we wait for the fair/foul status to rule on whether to get 2 or put the batter back in the box (infield fly definition)

So everything in my gut says the fair/foul status of this hit needs to be determined to make the correct ruling:

1. If fair, the BR completed his at-bat, because he was placed at first due to runner's interference with the catcher.

2. If foul, the BR did not complete his at-bat, because it was a foul ball and he leads off the next inning.

My problem is that I can't find anything that backs up my gut. Am I looking in the wrong places or am I just wrong?

Matt

 

https://umpire-empire.com/topic/59859-interference-batter-or-r3-out/#comment-246391

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I'm not gonna dig in the rulebook, and quote chapter/verse, and just answer.

It doesn't matter if the ball is fair/foul - the batter put the ball into play, and the third out was made on that play.  He completed his AB.  The guy AFTER him leads off the next inning.

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20 minutes ago, HokieUmp said:

I'm not gonna dig in the rulebook, and quote chapter/verse, and just answer.

It doesn't matter if the ball is fair/foul - the batter put the ball into play, and the third out was made on that play.  He completed his AB.  The guy AFTER him leads off the next inning.

You would be incorrect.

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From the 2018 MiLBUM (section 6.8, p. 86): rule 6.01(a)(10)

"If runner interference is called on a fly ball and it is not an infield fly situation, the ball remains alive until it is determined whether the ball is fair or foul. If fair, the runner who interfered is declared out and the batter is awarded first base even if the ball is caught (unless determined that the interference was intentional for the purpose of breaking up a double play). If foul, even if caught, the runner is out, the batter returns to bat (unless determined that the interference was intentional for the purpose of breaking up a double play) and the pitch counts."

Under the old numbering system this rule was 7.09(j) and it was amended in 2015 to clarify that the batter-runner is awarded first base when a base runner commits non-willful or unintentional interference.

6.01(a)(10) He fails to avoid a fielder who is attempting to field a batted ball, or intentionally interferes with a thrown ball, provided that if two or more fielders attempt to field a batted ball, and the runner comes in contact with one or more of them, the umpire shall determine which fielder is entitled to the benefit of this rule, and shall not declare the runner out for coming in contact with a fielder other than the one the umpire determines to be entitled to field such a ball. The umpire shall call the runner out in accordance with Rule 5.09(b)(3) (former Rule 7.08(b)). If the batter-runner is adjudged not to have hindered a fielder attempting to make a play on a batted ball, and if the base runner’s interference is adjudged not to be intentional, the batter-runner shall be awarded first base;

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9 hours ago, HokieUmp said:

It doesn't matter if the ball is fair/foul - the batter put the ball into play, and the third out was made on that play.  He completed his AB.  The guy AFTER him leads off the next inning.

It DOES matter whether the ball is fair. If foul (and uncaught), the batter never became a runner, so his time at bat is not over.

And, to answer the next question, he gets a new count.

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5 hours ago, maven said:

It DOES matter whether the ball is fair. If foul (and uncaught), the batter never became a runner, so his time at bat is not over.

And, to answer the next question, he gets a new count.

Maven. Can you please clarify? I thought it doesn't matter if the foul ball is caught or not according to the MiLBUM posting by Senor Azul.

I'm just a little confused here. Thanks.

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Interesting situation. Normally the ball is dead immediately when offensive interference occurs (except batter interference with catcher), so this seems to be an additional scenario where it's actually a delayed dead ball--we do care what happens after the offensive interference occurs, because we need to know if it was a fair batted ball or foul. Never thought of this before. Thanks for posting!!

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4 hours ago, JonnyCat said:

Maven. Can you please clarify? I thought it doesn't matter if the foul ball is caught or not according to the MiLBUM posting by Senor Azul.

I'm just a little confused here. Thanks.

It does not matter caught or uncaught. The moment Interference occurs, the ball is dead, so no outs may be recorded. However, we wait to call time until we determine whether the ball is fair or foul, even though the ball is already dead.

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2 hours ago, Biscuit said:

It does not matter caught or uncaught. The moment Interference occurs, the ball is dead, so no outs may be recorded. However, we wait to call time until we determine whether the ball is fair or foul, even though the ball is already dead.

Your explanation is how I understand the rule. 

I read Maven's post to mean something else would happen if the foul fly was caught.

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7 hours ago, JonnyCat said:

Maven. Can you please clarify? I thought it doesn't matter if the foul ball is caught or not according to the MiLBUM posting by Senor Azul.

I'm just a little confused here. Thanks.

Sorry, lost track of the outs. INT was the third out, ball was dead before it could be caught for an out, batter returns next inning.

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2 hours ago, maven said:

Sorry, lost track of the outs. INT was the third out, ball was dead before it could be caught for an out, batter returns next inning.

If it's fair, the batter would have become a runner and have ended their time at bat, thus bringing up the next batter, would it not?

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Mr. Recontra, the OBR definition of the term Interference used to say that interference caused an immediate dead ball—a definition that actually conflicted with a couple of other rules. So the rules committee amended the definition in 2013 with a simple deletion to fix the conflict. Here’s how the change read in the 2013 rule book--

Summary of Rule Changes for 2013

• Amended Rule 2.00 (INTERFERENCE) by deleting the last sentence, “On any interference the ball is dead” in order to account for cases where interference does not result in an immediate dead ball (e.g., batter’s interference, catcher’s interference, etc.).

By the way, your screen name is an actual word in Spanish. I have never used the word because I always thought it was slang and second-language speakers are warned not to use slang unless you thoroughly understand its usage. I think the word is used as an intensifier to mean something like really or extremely. Is that right?

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