Runner stealing home

[Guest Todd]

As soon as the pitcher puts his foot on the rubber, before coming set, the runner on 3rd breaks for home. The pitcher realizes what is happening and stands straight up and, without disengaging the rubber, but taking a step toward home, throws the ball to the catcher to make a play on the runner. (Not a pitch to the batter). Is this legal, or a balk because the pitcher didn’t step off the rubber?

[noumpere]

1 hour ago, Guest Todd said:

As soon as the pitcher puts his foot on the rubber, before coming set, the runner on 3rd breaks for home. The pitcher realizes what is happening and stands straight up and, without disengaging the rubber, but taking a step toward home, throws the ball to the catcher to make a play on the runner. (Not a pitch to the batter). Is this legal, or a balk because the pitcher didn’t step off the rubber?

Yes, it's  a pitch -- even if F1 didn't intend it that way.  The usual pitching rules apply, so this is likely a balk.

[BigVic69]

Once the pitcher engages the rubber, he is committed to a set of procedures that includes coming set, etc.

If he did not disengage and yet threw home, it is a balk.

[Jimurray]

50 minutes ago, BigVic69 said:

Once the pitcher engages the rubber, he is committed to a set of procedures that includes coming set, etc.

If he did not disengage and yet threw home, it is a balk.

A sideways pitcher who engages the rubber might be allowed to pitch from the windup with a new runner or advanced runner on. He has to declare which he didn’t do in this OP.  Otherwise in OBR and NCAA a throw from the rubber without winding up is a legal windup pitch unless you think it was a QP. A couple of MLB pitchers do it sometimes.  They occasionally get called for a QP and most of the time not. I’m waiting for an MLB sideways pitcher to declare windup with R3 in a squeeze or steal home sit and not wind up but throw home in a legal pitch. Probably not a loophole that we should expect to see. 

[LRZ]

As others have said, if it was made from the rubber, without stepping off, this is a pitch, regardless of the pitcher's intent. But was it legal?

Because the OP wrote "before coming set," I'm assuming that the pitcher was not in the wind-up position, but sideways, about to take the set position.* This, in part, is what the OBR 5.07(a)(2) says about the set position:

Set Position shall be indicated by the pitcher when he stands facing the batter with his pivot foot in contact with, and his other foot in front of, the pitcher’s plate, holding the ball in both hands in front of his body and coming to a complete stop.... Before assuming Set Position, the pitcher may elect to make any natural preliminary motion such as that known as “the stretch.” But if he so elects, he shall come to Set Position before delivering the ball to the batter.... Preparatory to coming to a set position, the pitcher shall have one hand on his side; from this position he shall go to his set position as defined in Rule 5.07(a)(2) without interruption and in one continuous motion. The pitcher, following his stretch, must (a) hold the ball in both hands in front of his body and (b) come to a complete stop.

If I understand the picture correctly, the pitcher did not start with either of the two legal starting points (OBR 5.07(a)(1) & (2) [the wind-up and the set]; assuming the latter,* he did not hold the ball in both hands or come to a complete stop. Consequently, the pitch was an illegal pitch, which I probably would have probably considered a quick pitch, which is a balk when there are runners aboard.

Alternatively, if the catcher jumped out in front of the plate to receive the ball, Rule 6.01(g) was violated, also resulting in a balk: "If, with a runner on third base and trying to score by means of a squeeze play or a steal, the catcher or any other fielder steps on, or in front of home base without possession of the ball, or touches the batter or his bat, the pitcher shall be charged with a balk, the batter shall be awarded first base on the interference and the ball is dead."

*OBR 5.07(a)(2) Comment: "With a runner or runners on base, a pitcher will be presumed to be pitching from the Set Position if he stands with his pivot foot in contact with and parallel to the pitcher’s plate, and his other foot in front of the pitcher’s plate, unless he notifies the umpire that he will be pitching from the Windup Position under such circumstances prior to the beginning of an at-bat."

[maven]

11 hours ago, BigVic69 said:

If he did not disengage and yet threw home, it is a balk.

That's not how to explain it, because it's legal for F1 to throw home without disengaging. It's called pitching.

But when he's engaged, all the restrictions apply. When F1 throws the ball to the batter, it's a pitch, so he has to come set before throwing it. In this case, it seems he didn't, which is a balk.

[Jimurray]

1 hour ago, maven said:

That's not how to explain it, because it's legal for F1 to throw home without disengaging. It's called pitching.

But when he's engaged, all the restrictions apply. When F1 throws the ball to the batter, it's a pitch, so he has to come set before throwing it. In this case, it seems he didn't, which is a balk.

He wouldn't have to come set in OBR/NCAA if he declared windup. If he didn't declare he is considered in the set and the balk is as you say.