Does this count as influencing the ball?

[thinkingaboutumping]

I know you can't influence the ball in anyway, but in this case Verlander doesn't touch the ball and can you really say that the wind from his kick forced the ball to move.  I think it was on the lip and kind of waiting to roll off and then by coincidence did it when he kicked at it.  But would you rule this as fair as he kicks at it?

 

[maven]

No, not as he kicks it. His influence doesn't matter until the ball goes foul.

 

He wouldn't have been very happy if that had gone foul but was ruled fair because of his "kick."

[JaxRolo]

No way.

[DVA7130]

Looks like I'd call it fair either way.

[UMP45]

Looks like I'd call it fair either way.

Why?

 

[Thunderheads]

 

Looks like I'd call it fair either way.

Why?

 

 

Why not?

if he kicks it ......it' fair ...........if he doesn't (as he didn't) .........it's fair.

 

makes sense to me, .... where are you confused @UMP45?

[noumpere]

I've never heard it called "you can't influence the ball."

[JaxRolo]

I've never heard it called "you can't influence the ball."

Maybe if you use telepathy!

[bam]

 

I've never heard it called "you can't influence the ball."

Maybe if you use telepathy!

 

That would be telekinesis.  Unless you're trying to read the ball's thoughts. 

[ricka56]

 

 

I've never heard it called "you can't influence the ball."

Maybe if you use telepathy!

That would be telekinesis.  Unless you're trying to read the ball's thoughts. 

 

Perhaps a vulcan mind meld with the ball

[UMP45]

 

 

Looks like I'd call it fair either way.

Why?

 

 

Why not?

if he kicks it ......it' fair ...........if he doesn't (as he didn't) .........it's fair.

 

makes sense to me, .... where are you confused @UMP45?

 

Sorry TH. It was late and my ADHD was acting up!

[thinkingaboutumping]

If it's not called influencing the ball, what's the wording on the rule that if you blow the ball foul, it's a fair ball.  

 

Here is an example: 

 

 

Here is an example of a failed attempt after the rule was clarified and notice the ump signals fair as soon as the fielder starts blowing on the ball (also in the second clip, didn't realize catchers could wear soft hats as late as 1987:

 

[Thunderheads]

 

 

 

Looks like I'd call it fair either way.

Why?

 

 

Why not?

if he kicks it ......it' fair ...........if he doesn't (as he didn't) .........it's fair.

 

makes sense to me, .... where are you confused @UMP45?

 

Sorry TH. It was late and my ADHD was acting up!

 

LMAO!

[maven]

If it's not called influencing the ball, what's the wording on the rule that if you blow the ball foul, it's a fair ball.  

 

 

There is no wording in the rule. By interpretation, a fielder who blows the ball from fair to foul territory has touched it, thus causing it to be fair.