thinkingaboutumping

Couldn't this have been reviewed and then overturned to a foul ball because the fan makes contact with the ball before the guy catches it? http://m.mlb.com/video/topic/51231442/v35068163

Which rule is that? 7.13 (1) prohibits blowing up F2 and instructs umpires to call out any runner who does so. 7.13 (2) prohibits F2 from blocking the plate, but includes no permission to a runner to blow him up if he does. The penalty is just what we saw here: rule the runner safe. If you had both, I would enforce 7.13 (1) first. Huh, I thought it was that if the catcher is holding the ball (say the throw beats the runner by 40 feet) and he blocks the plate, the runner can legally run him over?

Has there not been a "live" call of out/safe on 7.13 yet? Also, Howard never touched home....Could the defense have appealed?

Whose call is it actually? I think 3B might have a better view because of proximity, but I think it's still HP's call right?

From what I understand, it should be HP's call, but it seems like the 3B ump was making the call simultaneously. You have to see two different replays to see the two umpire making seemingly simultaneous contradictory calls... http://m.mlb.com/video/v34732211/?query=umpire http://m.mlb.com/video/v34732211/houoak-umpires-rule-ground-ball-towards-third-foul/?query=umpire If the link doesn't work, it's the first search result for "umpire" and it's from the A's/Astros game on 7/22

They've got some 'splaining to do... http://mlb.mlb.com/news/article/mlb/interference-call-leads-to-confusion-in-nats-crew-game?ymd=20140718&content_id=85134980&vkey=news_mlb

Yeah, it's an intentional walk, but I don't think I've ever seen this anywhere else, let alone the World Series, it's at the 331:31:31 mark if it doesn't automatically load up...

If it's not called influencing the ball, what's the wording on the rule that if you blow the ball foul, it's a fair ball. Here is an example: Here is an example of a failed attempt after the rule was clarified and notice the ump signals fair as soon as the fielder starts blowing on the ball (also in the second clip, didn't realize catchers could wear soft hats as late as 1987:

I know you can't influence the ball in anyway, but in this case Verlander doesn't touch the ball and can you really say that the wind from his kick forced the ball to move. I think it was on the lip and kind of waiting to roll off and then by coincidence did it when he kicked at it. But would you rule this as fair as he kicks at it?

After the INT, the runner is out, regardless of the status of the ball, fair or foul. The ball is left live only when it is near the line, in order to determine its fair/foul status. Once touched, it is dead immediately. If fair, the BR is awarded 1B unless called out for willful and deliberate INT by the runner. This was the outcome in the video. If foul, the BR is returned to the plate, and the play treated as an ordinary foul ball (strike added to the count with less than 2 strikes). It cannot be caught for an out, either fair or foul. If foul and caught is it BR to first, R1 out?

1st and 3rd, batter thinks ball 3 is really ball 4, trots down to first, R1 goes to 2nd thinking it's a walk, defense doesn't contest. Then time is called, umps review it, they see it's ball 3, batter is called back, but the runner is made to move back to first, manager comes to dispute it, but they don't change it, could he have played the game under protest? <iframe src='http://m.mlb.com/shared/video/embed/embed.html?content_id=33446081&topic_id=6479266&width=400&height=224&property=mlb' width='400' height='224' frameborder='0'>Your browser does not support iframes.</iframe>

http://m.mlb.com/video/v33322633/?query=umpire Edit: Does this help? <iframe src='http://m.mlb.com/shared/video/embed/embed.html?content_id=33322633&topic_id=6479266&width=400&height=224&property=mlb' width='400' height='224' frameborder='0'>Your browser does not support iframes.</iframe>