I did get a reply from Childress. He gave permission for me to post his email. So I will post what he sent me: (in blue)
It's a tough play. (Feel free to post this if you like.)
My take:
As you point out, the pitcher can feint a throw to second if it is occupied.
He can also throw to second for the purpose of making a play. The fact that he didn't throw at once to F6 is irrelevant. He DID throw to second to make a play. They just didn't execute.
Unless you blew the out / safe call (grin), there's no problem.
The more difficult play is: R1 merely feinted a move to second. Now the umpire has to figure in whether the pitcher had reason to think it was a steal: How far did R1 get toward second?
Etc.
I hope this has helped.