FED. SIT: R1. F1 in stretch. R1 breaks toward 2nd while pitcher is set. F1 steps directly toward 2nd but sees no one has gotten there to cover yet and "feigns." Once F6 gets to the bag, he throws to 2nd for a banger.
Question: F1 can feign to second if occupied but I'm not sure this constitutes occupied. According to the casebook it's legal if he throws to 2nd in an effort to retire the runner advancing there (6.2.4a). I'm just not sure how the feign plays into this.
I completely froze when I saw it. It was the only time I've ever been on a ball field and have everyone wait for me to make a call and just freeze. It was awful. I didn't balk him and called the runner safe on a banger... Neither team was happy, although I think that had more to do with the long delay in making my call (while trying to figure if it was a balk) than the call itself.