2 Situations, looking for input. (OBR Please)
1. Batter hits ball to fence and is looking for a double. F3 stands on TOP of 1st base and obstructs the runner. DDB obstruction is signaled. Runner, because of the obstruction misses first and continues to 2nd where he is safe without a play. Question: Does the runner still have to touch 1st base if in the mind of the umpire, the miss was caused by the obstruction? -- 1st base can be a little different by rule.
2. Similar situation but occurs at 2nd instead of 1st. (miss 2nd due to obstruction) Same question.
The umpire shall then call “Time†and impose such
penalties, if any, as in his judgment will nullify the act of obstruction.