Good evening to everyone!
The other night some friends and I had a discussion about catch play. Since many doubts have arisen, I hope you can help me.
Ok, let's go.
OBR Rules.
CASE 1:
We have 0 out. A fly ball is hit, so R3 leave early 3B, cross home, and only after the ball is caught so? Will the run be valid? Or what?
A friend of mine said that the run would be valid so the runner could go back to the bench. I think instead if R3 leaves early 3B, cross home, then he must return to third if the fly is caught — in order to keep from being called out for leaving early, am I right?
So he must return to 3B in correct reverse order, passing and touching HB first, right?
However, it would be a truly desperate situation because R3 could be put out with an appeal to 3B or via a tag wherever he is, even if he were on HB, correct? But I don't think the appeal could be made even in HB, correct?
From here we move on to another situation.
CASE 2:
0 out. R1 on 1B, I'm well aware that this is a situation bordering on reality, but it's just to better understand the rule. A fly ball is hit > R1 starts from 1B and reaches 3B. The ball is caught, so he must retouch his original base. But what does "original base" mean? It means the base TOP or time of the catch?
I mean R1 must retouch 1B (time of pitch base) or, for example, 2B (base legally touched before the catch)?
CASE 3:
Tagging up is an appeal but it's not a force out, with all that that entails, right?
So how long can the defense appeal? Let's imagine CASE 1 above. R3 has now gone to the bench, so he can't touch 3B again, assuming I'm right. In this case, can the defense appeal by throwing the ball to 3B, or even to HB?
The pitcher is on the mound. How long can he appeal? Until he puts already together his hands or until he starts moving his foot?
Once on the mound, if the pitcher starts moving his foot, he can only make a pickoff (or a feint) or a pitch to home, but he can no longer throw the ball for an appeal, right? That is, how does the pitcher make an appeal on the mound?
I read and knew it could be done like this: The pitcher disengages from the rubber and then he can either throw it to a fielder who will appeal, or he can bring the ball to the base himself, right?
I also recently read that the pitcher can appeal without disengaging the rubber. (https://www.umpirebible.com/index.php/rule-myths) N42.
A friend of mine told me that you can only appeal without disengaging the rubber if you are in wind-up position, but it would be a balk if the pitcher were in set position, right?
I know, however, that in any position, whether set or windup, the pitcher can appeal by throwing the ball to 1B, 2B, or 3B, without disengaging from the rubber, as if it were a pickoff. So he can step, without disengaging first, and throw to any 1B, 2B, or 3B to appeal. But I don't think this can be done with an appeal to homebase, or not?
Another curiosity: would appealing without disengaging the rubber also be legal for appealing to Homebase? But how is this done in this particular case?
Does the pitcher steps and throw normally to homebase?
I believe, however, that to appeal to home base, the pitcher must step off the rubber and only then can he throw it to a fielder or carry it himself. Is that correct?
Question
Jack_Wick
Good evening to everyone!
The other night some friends and I had a discussion about catch play. Since many doubts have arisen, I hope you can help me.
Ok, let's go.
OBR Rules.
CASE 1:
We have 0 out. A fly ball is hit, so R3 leave early 3B, cross home, and only after the ball is caught so? Will the run be valid? Or what?
A friend of mine said that the run would be valid so the runner could go back to the bench. I think instead if R3 leaves early 3B, cross home, then he must return to third if the fly is caught — in order to keep from being called out for leaving early, am I right?
So he must return to 3B in correct reverse order, passing and touching HB first, right?
However, it would be a truly desperate situation because R3 could be put out with an appeal to 3B or via a tag wherever he is, even if he were on HB, correct? But I don't think the appeal could be made even in HB, correct?
From here we move on to another situation.
CASE 2:
0 out. R1 on 1B, I'm well aware that this is a situation bordering on reality, but it's just to better understand the rule. A fly ball is hit > R1 starts from 1B and reaches 3B. The ball is caught, so he must retouch his original base. But what does "original base" mean? It means the base TOP or time of the catch?
I mean R1 must retouch 1B (time of pitch base) or, for example, 2B (base legally touched before the catch)?
CASE 3:
Tagging up is an appeal but it's not a force out, with all that that entails, right?
So how long can the defense appeal? Let's imagine CASE 1 above. R3 has now gone to the bench, so he can't touch 3B again, assuming I'm right. In this case, can the defense appeal by throwing the ball to 3B, or even to HB?
The pitcher is on the mound. How long can he appeal? Until he puts already together his hands or until he starts moving his foot?
Once on the mound, if the pitcher starts moving his foot, he can only make a pickoff (or a feint) or a pitch to home, but he can no longer throw the ball for an appeal, right? That is, how does the pitcher make an appeal on the mound?
I read and knew it could be done like this: The pitcher disengages from the rubber and then he can either throw it to a fielder who will appeal, or he can bring the ball to the base himself, right?
I also recently read that the pitcher can appeal without disengaging the rubber. (https://www.umpirebible.com/index.php/rule-myths) N42.
A friend of mine told me that you can only appeal without disengaging the rubber if you are in wind-up position, but it would be a balk if the pitcher were in set position, right?
I know, however, that in any position, whether set or windup, the pitcher can appeal by throwing the ball to 1B, 2B, or 3B, without disengaging from the rubber, as if it were a pickoff. So he can step, without disengaging first, and throw to any 1B, 2B, or 3B to appeal. But I don't think this can be done with an appeal to homebase, or not?
Another curiosity: would appealing without disengaging the rubber also be legal for appealing to Homebase? But how is this done in this particular case?
Does the pitcher steps and throw normally to homebase?
I believe, however, that to appeal to home base, the pitcher must step off the rubber and only then can he throw it to a fielder or carry it himself. Is that correct?
Thanks to everyone who will help me.
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beerguy55
At some point you need to use the four inches of real estate between your ears and not depend on everything to be spelled out. A throw to home plate while touching the rubber would be a pitch. Th
Velho
To add for clarity (I imagine @jimurrayalterego is aware but not everyone is since I had this debate at an outreach clinic (it was either MiLB or a NCAA Pac-12 official, I think the latter): If t
Velho
Case 1: R3 can do whatever they want. 😉 If they want to avoid risk of being called out they need to touch home plate and then 3B before the defense tags them or appeals at 3B. The run will stand until
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