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Dropped 3rd Strike


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Question

Guest Nickharp
Posted

Bases are loaded with one out, the batter swings and misses strike 3. The batter takes off running, the catcher picks up the ball, steps on the plate and throws to first. The fielding team thinks they have a double play to end the inning and run off the field and the umps agreed. The runner at 3rd was on the way home and crossed the plate, the runner from second knowing there was only two outs came home and scored. The umps chat after the play is dead knowing they messed up. They want to put the runners back, so bases loaded and two outs. Is that the correct rule, or should one or two of those runs count since there was technically only 2 outs?

5 answers to this question

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Posted

A double-play on an uncaught third strike!?  Now I really have heard it all ... close up shop, guys.

The play should stand.  

The batter was out on the strike out.  Two outs, live ball.  Stepping on home plate did nothing.  The catcher threw the ball — that’s on him (even if the batter ran).  While the umpires may have gone along with it, they didn’t mess it up — the defense did.

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Posted
4 hours ago, The Man in Blue said:

A double-play on an uncaught third strike!?  Now I really have heard it all ... close up shop, guys.

The play should stand.  

The batter was out on the strike out.  Two outs, live ball.  Stepping on home plate did nothing.  The catcher threw the ball — that’s on him (even if the batter ran).  While the umpires may have gone along with it, they didn’t mess it up — the defense did.

Agree, both runs score, 2 outs, play on. 

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Posted

Except that if an umpire(s) make a call that disadvantages a team, and then changes it, they have to rectify that disadvantage.

If they said “out” and “out”, the defense leaves the field while R2 keeps running, that is a disadvantage.

Basically the talk should be, “batter is out”…okay, we are changing our call that R3 was not out.  What would have happened if we hadn’t called a double play?”

The answer SOUNDS LIKE R3 scores, and R2 only scored bc defense left the field.  So I’d have R3 counting, R2 at third, and I’m assuming R1 went to second.

Now, if R2 was already scoring or nearing it when umps declared third out incorrectly, I’m okay with that run counting too.

But you can not ignore the fact that the umps screwed up.  Yes, catcher did, but umps have to correct situation when their mistake changes what would have happened 

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Posted
54 minutes ago, SH0102 said:

Except that if an umpire(s) make a call that disadvantages a team, and then changes it, they have to rectify that disadvantage.

 

Agreed, but I read the likely play differently.  In my mind's eye, R3 likely was not running on the D3K, so his run should not count either.  Call the BR out, put the runners back, and resume with bases loaded and two outs.

If R3 was running, I agree he scores.  If R2 was running, he gets third.  If R1 was running, he gets second.  And other combinations if some were running and some weren't.

So, to get the "right" answer, the OP needs to provide more information -- but we've given him enough to figure it out.

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Posted
5 hours ago, noumpere said:

If R3 was running, I agree he scores.  If R2 was running, he gets third.  If R1 was running, he gets second.  And other combinations if some were running and some weren't.

And, if R1 or R2 was running but R3 was not, everyone returns to their TOP base. We don't advance a preceding runner to move a trailing one up.

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