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Posted

I had a fellow I work with ask me this question and I'm just not sure.  I saw a discussion related to this situation on this site from a couple years ago but still wanted to ask.

Situation:  FED rules, runner on second, runner gets a big lead, pitcher does not disengage and throws to the shortstop to retire or drive the runner back.

Is this a balk?

Does the pitcher have to step directly toward second or third?

Can anyone point me to a Case Book ruling that addresses this?

Like I said, I read the discussion from a couple years ago and it was said this was not a balk.  One of the main rules guys in our state says this is a balk and I need helping understanding why this is or isn't a balk.

Thanks

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Posted

I forgot to add something.  Lead was so big the pitcher threw to the shortstop who was still in his primary fielding area.

Shortstop was not running back toward second to receive a throw.

Posted

If the runner is that far off throwing to F6 would I think qualify as trying to make a play. If F6 if a little over 1/2 way to either base then the step would be to which ever base I think he is going to for a play.

Posted
31 minutes ago, James88 said:

I forgot to add something.  Lead was so big the pitcher threw to the shortstop who was still in his primary fielding area.

Shortstop was not running back toward second to receive a throw.

Still legal.

Posted
48 minutes ago, James88 said:

I forgot to add something.  Lead was so big the pitcher threw to the shortstop who was still in his primary fielding area.

Shortstop was not running back toward second to receive a throw.

Doesn't matter

22 minutes ago, Mudisfun said:

If the runner is that far off throwing to F6 would I think qualify as trying to make a play. If F6 if a little over 1/2 way to either base then the step would be to which ever base I think he is going to for a play.

Doesn't matter.

 

The "proximity to make a play" (FED wording) applies only to a throw to F3 who is not at the base.

Posted
44 minutes ago, noumpere said:

The "proximity to make a play" (FED wording) applies only to a throw to F3 an F who is not at the base 1B.

It could apply to any fielder covering 1B on a pick: e.g., F4 on the infamous bunt-stunt; or, F9 on a bush league deek. 

Posted

The closest case book play is 6.2.4 Situation J:

With R1 on first base and two outs, F1 attempts to pick off R1. As F1 pivots to throw, he realizes that F3 is not on the base, but is in his normal defensive position. F1 completes the throw without interruption. The coach of the offensive team wants a balk called on F1. RULING:  As long as F3 is in the proximity of the base, F1 would not be guilty of a balk. Proximity is umpire judgment and is based on whether the fielder is close enough to the base to legitimately make a play on the runner.

Federation rule 6-2-4b states the pitcher must step “directly toward a base” when throwing or feinting to any base. But I agree with Mr. noumpere that as long as the step is more toward second base than third in your scenario then it is not a balk.

Posted

Ask your rules guy is a feint to an occupied second (or third) base is legal.  Then ask him if a pitcher can step and NOT throw, then why would it be a balk to step and throw to a fielder that's not at the occupied base.

That's why throwing to F3 who is neither at first base, nor making a play on the runner is a balk.  It's considered to be a feint to first.

Posted

I broke out the Jim Evans balk video and he demonstrates this exact scenario and confirms exactly what you guys told me.  As long as the pitcher takes a legal step, this is not a balk.  

I realize he is talking pro rules, but I'm assuming the same applies to FED. 

Thanks for the help.


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