Play Situation

[BigBlue4u]

R1 & R2 one out.  Both runners going on a double steal.  R2 sees that the ball is popped up near second base, stops and returns to second base.  R1, continues and slides into second base.  With both runners in contract with second base, the ball comes down and 1) Hits R1 or 2) Hits R2.  In each case, the second baseman picks up the ball and does not make a play.  Neither runner deliberately tried to interfere. What's the call?

[JSam21]

Was an infield fly called?

 

[FourthOut]

Could be wrong here, but it seems like either runner would be out (assuming the ball hasn't passed F4 by the time it hits the runner).

All the infield fly does is call the batter out, removing the force play. Runners can still be called out for interference, be doubled off if caught, and advance at their own peril if uncaught. Therefore, it serves to reason they can still be called out for being hit by a batted ball. There are also no special protections for runners standing on a base who are hit by a batted ball.

[jimurrayalterego]

9 minutes ago, FourthOut said:

Could be wrong here, but it seems like either runner would be out (assuming the ball hasn't passed F4 by the time it hits the runner).

All the infield fly does is call the batter out, removing the force play. Runners can still be called out for interference, be doubled off if caught, and advance at their own peril if uncaught. Therefore, it serves to reason they can still be called out for being hit by a batted ball. There are also no special protections for runners standing on a base who are hit by a batted ball.

You are wrong. 

[Velho]

31 minutes ago, FourthOut said:

There are also no special protections for runners standing on a base who are hit by a batted ball.

This assumption is the one to investigate to understand where you went wrong.

[BigBlue4u]

5 hours ago, Velho said:

There are also no special protections for runners standing on a base who are hit by a batted ball.

Take a look at 8-4-2-k-1

 

10 hours ago, BigBlue4u said:

R1 & R2 one out.  Both runners going on a double steal.  R2 sees that the ball is popped up near second base, stops and returns to second base.  R1, continues and slides into second base.  With both runners in contract with second base, the ball comes down and 1) Hits R1 or 2) Hits R2.  In each case, the second baseman picks up the ball and does not make a play.  Neither runner deliberately tried to interfere. What's the call?

My bad for not indicating the umpires did signal and call "infield fly."

[Velho]

1 hour ago, BigBlue4u said:

6 hours ago, Velho said:

There are also no special protections for runners standing on a base who are hit by a batted ball.

Take a look at 8-4-2-k-1

The above is for @FourthOut (the quote of a quote gets twisted)

[The Man in Blue]

The infield fly situation (regardless of verbalization on the field) removes the force on the runners (unless the umpires actually deem this NOT an infield fly for some reason).  Second base belongs to R2.

Ball hits R2 … dead ball.  Batter is out on the infield fly. R1 is sent back to first base. Two outs.

Ball hits R1 … R1 is out and the batter is out.  End of inning.

 

[BigBlue4u]

1 hour ago, The Man in Blue said:

Ball hits R2 … dead ball.  Batter is out on the infield fly. R1 is sent back to first base. Two outs.

Ball hits R1 … R1 is out and the batter is out.  End of inning.

 

Excellent!  R1 is out because he is not legally occupying 2ndbase.  (Since R1 is not forced to advance to 2B, the base belongs to R2

 

4 hours ago, Velho said:

The above is for @FourthOut (the quote of a quote gets twisted)

Got it.