base runner

[evad brown]

Runner is on 2nd base on a hit and run. High pop fly to right fielder. Runner touches 3rd, but thinking ball will be caught, takes 2 steps back to 2nd base. BUT right fielder drops the pop up. RUNNER then realizes he can head home. Does he have to retouch 3rd base after already touching it?  Thanks, David Brown

[Velho]

If the runner on 2nd (what we call "R2") has passed 3rd base and then goes back towards 2nd base without re-touching 3rd they are subject to appeal for missing the base (regardless if they end up going to 2nd or Home).

"Passing" third is the key. See this page and video for some detail that may help.

https://www.closecallsports.com/2021/06/a-tale-of-two-touches-last-time-by-in-tb.html#google_vignette

[beerguy55]

Yes.

This doesn't matter if he touches and passes third, and then retouches third on his way to taking a couple of steps back to second...or just touches third and then takes a couple steps back to second...in either scenario he must touch third once again on his way home.

[TheLovejoy]

20 hours ago, beerguy55 said:

Yes.

This doesn't matter if he touches and passes third, and then retouches third on his way to taking a couple of steps back to second...or just touches third and then takes a couple steps back to second...in either scenario he must touch third once again on his way home.

Does he tho? If he's touched 3rd on the way past it, establishing his own basepath, he can then take 2 steps in whatever direction he wants, correct? So he shouldn't have to touch 3rd on his direction back towards home, no?

[maven]

22 hours ago, evad brown said:

Does he have to retouch 3rd base after already touching it?

Yes. As I envision the play, he touches 3B and immediately retreats a couple steps toward 2B. He may not legally cut from there (the baseline between 2B and 3B) to HP without touching 3B on his way. The retreat from the base "undoes" his initial touch—had there been an R1 on the play, the force on R2 would have been reinstated by his retreat.

21 hours ago, Velho said:

If the runner on 2nd (what we call "R2") has passed 3rd base and then goes back towards 2nd base without re-touching 3rd they are subject to appeal for missing the base (regardless if they end up going to 2nd or Home).

I agree with your claim, but that might not be the OP's case. It's unclear whether R2 has passed 3B; we're told only that he touched it. If R2 touches and then retreats immediately, without passing, then he need not retouch 3B on his way back to 2B.

24 minutes ago, TheLovejoy said:

Does he tho? If he's touched 3rd on the way past it, establishing his own basepath, he can then take 2 steps in whatever direction he wants, correct? So he shouldn't have to touch 3rd on his direction back towards home, no?

It depends on whether his retreat takes him past 3B. As Velho says, if he touches 3B and rounds it, then cuts through the infield directly toward 2B, then he is liable to be out for a missed base appeal at 3B.

If he has rounded 3B and takes 1–2 steps back toward 2B, then he need not retouch 3B. The umpire will need to judge whether his retreat takes him past 3B: roughly, if R2, having "rounded" 3B, crosses a line connecting 3B and the mound, then he has retreated from 3B and would need to retouch it or be liable for a missed base appeal.

[TheLovejoy]

@maven Ahh if I had clicked on the closecallsports link, I'd have seen that.
Essentially you draw a line from the center of the mount, toward the bases, and if that line is crossed, you'd consider it a retreat scenario.