Runner hit by the ball that was batted

[Guest Robert J mcdonald Jr]

Bases loaded, batter hits ball and the ball hits runner going from 2nd to 3rd. What is result?

 

 

[johnnyg08]

"Time" R2 is out and any runner that is forced by the BR going to first base advances one base.  

 

All other runners return.

[rjjrmcdonald]

That's what I thought

[kristoffae]

unless the batted ball has passed an infielder other than the pitcher and no other fielder could have fielded it, then it is nothing.  This most often occurs when the infielders are playing in and the runner advancing from 2nd to 3rd is behind them.

[Richvee]

unless the batted ball has passed an infielder other than the pitcher and no other fielder could have fielded it, then it is nothing.  This most often occurs when the infielders are playing in and the runner advancing from 2nd to 3rd is behind them.

In this situation, if you judge the contact intentional on the part of the runner, it's still INT

[noumpere]

unless the batted ball has passed an infielder other than the pitcher and no other fielder could have fielded it, then it is nothing.  This most often occurs when the infielders are playing in and the runner advancing from 2nd to 3rd is behind them.

And, the definition of "passed" depends on the rules code.

 

In OBR, the ball must go "through or immediately by" the fielder (such that the runner would have a reasonable expectation that the fielder would glove the ball).  If it doesn't (for example, the ball passes midway between F5 and F6 and neither had a play on it), then the runner is still out when hit, even if the runner is "beyond" the fielders.

 

In FED, it just needs to go past a line between the fielders (the "string theory")