calablue

What? You want me to tell her to give you beer?:clap:

:hi5:dirtydawg got it right. It is offensive interference and if the play was being made on the runner coming home he would be out. OBR rule 7.11 should cover that situation. Same rule in Babe Ruth/ Cal Ripken and also in Dixie Youth Baseball. ( Requires any member of the offensive team to vacate any space needed by a fielder who is attempting to field a batted or thrown ball. )

I got nothing here. Sounds like he made a good play and you made the right call. It's always my fault too. That one bang bang play that didn't go their way or that called 3rd strike they didn't like is always what caused them to lose the game 19 - 3.:GL:

I could see the INT here IF the ball is in the catches mitt when the batters bat hits it. But if the ball bounces out of the catchers mitt, he didn't do his job. How could you penalize the batter for hitting the ball on his follow through when the ball shouldn't have been there in the first place?

I think that is how they describe it in FED. R1 (runner furthest on the bases) and then state the base he's on. Somebody correct me if I'm wrong.

noumpere... does the FED rule actually say that? I'm not doubting you, I am going to start HS games next season, don't have a FED book yet and am curious. :HS

So what would be the difference here if the runner had made no attempt to avoid ( no deliberate or willful interference...just no attempt to avoid) being hit by a batted ball. If the umpire was fairly certain that a double play would have been made without the INT are you saying he should call both runner and the batter out also? I don't think so. I think deliberate and willful INT is required. I don't have a FED rule book, but OBR rule 7.09g states that if the runner willfully and deliberately interferes with the obvious intent to break up a double play, the umpire should call the second out. :HS

Paperripper, I think you got that one wrong. (Unless it was intentional INT.) When R2 runs into F6 the ball becomes dead, R2 is out and BR would be awarded 1st base. If it was intentional, then you can get the second out. Sounds like a HTBT situation. Was F6 moving in to make the catch and R2 was just running to 3B without paying attention? Or was F6 stand there waiting for the ball to come down when he got plowed into by R2 whom made no effort to avoid him?

I don't see how you could have INT here. ( unless there was intent) The batter didn't interfere with the fielder (catcher) while trying to field a ball or make a play on a runner. He got hit by the ball after the the catcher attempted to catch it. And it sure doesn't seem like the backswing situation can be equated to this situation. Usually if the batter swings so hard that his backswing hits the catcher, the ball is dead, all runners return to the base they occupied at TOP, and no penalty to the batter. :beerbang

How is the batter out if less than two out and first is unoccupied? I am assuming first is uoccupied because the OP only states runner on second.

I am aware of this rule and am really glad I have never had it happen because I'm pretty sure OC will get EJ arguing it. Here's howI see it going..... ( How can the run not count? it wasn't R3 who left early!!!!!! Sorry coach but that is the rule....But yada yada yada !!!! See Ya Coach!):rollinglaugh:

I know the rules allow it. But has anyone ever seen it? I have never seen it happen. :rollinglaugh:

OK, that makes sense to me. I think what was confusing me was the fact that a pitcher can throw to an unoccuopied base to make a play, so why was this interp necessary? Also, because there is no mention of the runner taking off. Now I see that if he spun toward first and didn't make the throw there it would be a balk without this interp. Thanks :rollinglaugh:

The rule says you CAN THROW TO A BASE FROM THE WINDUP.

OK guys, I read the rules and read the rules and read the rules some more. I understand most of them but I keep coming back to a this one and I can't understand what the reasoning is for the approved ruling at the end of rule 8.05 that says " With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base. " Could someone please give me some kind of logical explanation for this statement ?? And also, has anyone ever actually seen a pitcher step and throw to a base from the windup position ?? :big_no

8.01b covers this. From the Set Position he may deliver the ball to the batter, throw to a base or step backward off the pitcher's plate with his pivot foot.

A little charity work now and then....it's good for the soul.:smachhead:

Rotary it is dude !

mazzamouth......I was assuming that there was a play being made. I didn't mean he(the runner) should be out just for the batter being there. I agree it probably was a HTBT situation.

JBOVAL....LIke I said before, You got it right. If R2 is standing on 3B by himself he can't be tagged out. If R3 returns to 3B and both R2 and R3 are standing on 3B the only runner who can be tagged out is R2 because R3 is entitled to the bag. R2 can't be called out simply because he is on 3B also, he must be tagged while both runners are in contact with 3B or when he steps back off the bag.:rollinglaugh:

It was irrelavant in this case anyway. Bottom of last inning, tie game, R1, R3 2 out. R1 takes off, F1 traps him in a rundown but R3 heads for home and throw to plate goes wild. R3 safe, game over as far as I'm concerned but I let it play out as F2 overthrows into center, F8 comes up with the ball, shoots it to F5 and that is where the play occurred. :BD:

Solo because the league is complaining about losing money.:BD:

Now I think it would be called a past passed ball.

I agree with you here . I've got R3 out regardless of whether F1 has the ball already or not. Batter had no business being where he was and impeded F1 s progress to the plate while attempting to make a play. 7.11 and/or 7.09c should apply here.

This is very similar to the thread posted last night by jboval caller "Batter Interference?? in this same catagory." It is definately INT by a batter...7.09c covers it (or 7.09d...depends on what book you're looking in: ....OBR, Dixie Baseball > 7.09d, Babe Ruth Baseball > 7.09c )..but who is out depends on how many outs there are at the time. Before two outs.... the runner is out. If two outs the batter is out and the run does not count.