Larry in TN

I'm interested in the Balk/No Balk breakdown on this pickoff. It was ruled no-balk but it looks like Kershaw moved forward, toward the plate, before throwing to 1B. What keeps this from being a balk? https://www.mlb.com/video/pickoff-attempt-1b-7q13fu

I don't think you can draw that conclusion. When something is the result of negotiation, as this rule would have been, the end result is something that is acceptable to all involved but it is unlikely to be exactly what any one of them wanted.

The Jomboy YouTube channel did a video on this replay. He put together three time-synced camera angles, which seems to show it very well.

Really?

And the video ends with, "that's obstruction!"

Nothing to protest. RLI is a judgement call.

Okay, thanks. Makes sense now.

The OP's description sounded like all runners completed their base award. How did they not?

The ball was already dead when it went out of play. Once the runners legally completed their base award it's just like any other time out. Nothing happens. No runners can be passed. No outs can be recorded. For an out, you'd need a base runner error, ball back in play, then a successful appeal. And, why would the umpires call time a second time? Time was out when the ball went out of play.

I saw that live. It was an unexpected play but Tumpane was right there. The announcer even noticed and commented on the rotation!

What rule?

What did the defense contend R1 did which would constitute interference?

Did anyone appeal a missed base at home?

Sounds like a two-base error. That is scored as a single error against F5 but accounts for the BR reaching 2B. The additional two bases are scored as fielder's choice.

A base advance "on the throw" is scored as fielder's choice so 1B then advance to 2B on FC.

When you tag the runner the ball must be in the same hand. When you touch a base it does not.

Maybe I'm misreading the post. I'm reading it as only two outs, not three.

Once R3 scored the 5th run, why did you put the other two runners back on? BR is out but you still have your 5 run limit to end the half-inning.

A skunk in the outfield?

“The beginning of wisdom is to call things by their proper name.” ― Confucius

No. You are charged an at-bat but are not credited with a hit. The effect on your batting average is the same as being put-out. The scoring is that you reached on a fielder's choice. Look at the Official Baseball Rules chapter 9.00 for this, and many other, scoring rules. http://mlb.mlb.com/documents/0/8/0/268272080/2018_Official_Baseball_Rules.pdf

A pitched ball out of play is always a one-base award from the time of pitch. A ball thrown (not pitched) out of play is always a two-base award. The only question is whether it is applied from time of pitch or time of throw (TOP vs. TOT). In your scenarios, the runners positions at TOT and TOP were the same so it doesn't matter.

There is no situation where the runner is properly sent back to 1B by the umpire. The award is 3B. It is up to the runner, and his coaches, to legally complete the award by retouching 1B, touching 2B, then touching 3B. If the runner fails to legally complet the award then he is liable to be put-out on proper appeal. It is up to the defense to know how to execute the appeal.

When the batter is hit by a pitch the ball is always dead. Depending on the situation, the hit-batter could be out, awarded first base, or have either a ball or strike added to his count.

That makes sense, I think. I just don't have a good feel for how this rule is supposed to be implemented. Thanks...