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Simulating Delivery & Disengagement


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Had an American Legion game a few days ago where a RHP with R1, after coming set, lifted his right leg and disengaged the rubber with a high leg kick in the same manner that he would normally lift his left leg to start his delivery.  OC put up a mild protestation that it should be a balk.  Thoughts?

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2 minutes ago, Ump29 said:

To start with - did he step forward or backward to disengage ?

Backward.  There was no issue there; only possible argument is that the leg kick looked the same, albeit backward.  

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absent nothing else, like arm movements associated with starting a motion, sounds like nothing....are they really fooled by the back leg coming up? If so, they have bigger problems than not getting a balk call.

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No rule dictates the manner in which F1 must step backward, only that it be a step directly backward and land behind the rubber.

I've seen this too, and been asked about it. Most coaches would say: once that pivot moves, their runners better be getting back to their bases. Whether it moves up and does the hokey pokey or whatever is irrelevant.

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A fairly common balk is when a pitcher buckles the back knee. As described in the OP, it is hard to imagine the back leg being raised in a simulated pitching motion without first buckling the knee--

From the 2013 Wendelstedt Rules Interpretation Manual (p. 102):

The pitcher, while touching his plate, makes a motion naturally associated with his pitch, and fails to complete his delivery. The pitcher bends his back knee (he broke his knee) in an attempt to simulate his pitching motion, and then throws to a base in an attempt to pick off a runner [6.02(a)(1)].

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On 7/6/2018 at 9:39 PM, Senor Azul said:

A fairly common balk is when a pitcher buckles the back knee. As described in the OP, it is hard to imagine the back leg being raised in a simulated pitching motion without first buckling the knee--

From the 2013 Wendelstedt Rules Interpretation Manual (p. 102):

The pitcher, while touching his plate, makes a motion naturally associated with his pitch, and fails to complete his delivery. The pitcher bends his back knee (he broke his knee) in an attempt to simulate his pitching motion, and then throws to a base in an attempt to pick off a runner [6.02(a)(1)].

How does F1 disengage from the rubber if he doesn't bend his "back" knee ? 

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From the 2010 Jaksa/Roder manual (p. 143):

It is a balk if a pitcher—

Fails to disengage the rubber properly… A pitcher can disengage properly only if he steps his pivot foot onto the ground backward of and off the pitching rubber. He must do so without interruption or hesitation, and without a movement normally associated with his motion to pitch.

 

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  • 1 month later...

Where does that say he has to disengage with a straight knee?

I think Mr blue it's thinking of that front-knee buckle. He can't buckle his front knee, like he would if he were going to pitch or make a pickoff move, without completing a fluid, continuous motion, either to pitch or pick off.

Nevermind the knee buckle though.

He can't simulate his pitching motion by stepping off. This is never a balk, in any ruleset. If the runner falls for it and tries to buy a balk, you get to point at him and laugh while you out him a few more times.

Try and act out the op.

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