obstruction

[TomCMC]

R1 starting at 1b is obstructed between 1b and 2b by f3 on a base hit while missing 2b r1 advances to 3b. The defense properly appeals r1 missing second base. How should the umpire rule?

[wolfe_man]

The obstruction supersedes the missed base, so that's nothing. 

In my mind, if you allow the appeal, then what punishment was provided to the defense for obstructing?

 

Not an exact scenario, but similar:

2017 INTERP SITUATION 16: With a runner on first base, the batter hits a single down the right-field foul line. As the runner from first base nears second base, he is obstructed by the shortstop, which causes him to not touch second base. The runner continues to advance and arrives safely at third base. The defense calls “time,” and then appeals the runner missing second base. RULING: The runner is not out on appeal. If, in the umpire’s judgment, the obstruction caused the runner to miss second base, the appeal is denied and the runner’s advance is legal. (CB 8.2.5E) 

[GreyhoundAggie]

Wolfe,

This would only apply if the obstruction caused him to miss 2nd in the umpires judgment correct?

He doesn't get a free pass if he is obstructed 10 ft off of 1st base and then just steps right over 2nd on his way to 3rd.

[noumpere]

13 minutes ago, GreyhoundAggie said:

Wolfe,

This would only apply if the obstruction caused him to miss 2nd in the umpires judgment correct?

He doesn't get a free pass if he is obstructed 10 ft off of 1st base and then just steps right over 2nd on his way to 3rd.

Correct.  And if R1 is obstructed by F3, than chances that the OBS *CAUSED* the missed base are zero.

[wolfe_man]

44 minutes ago, GreyhoundAggie said:

Wolfe,

This would only apply if the obstruction caused him to miss 2nd in the umpires judgment correct?

He doesn't get a free pass if he is obstructed 10 ft off of 1st base and then just steps right over 2nd on his way to 3rd.

I should have thought about that just a second longer.   If he was obstructed between 1st and 2nd, then we'd give him 2nd most likely as the obstructed award - but R1 went on to 3B on his own, so you are correct.  R1 does not get a free pass if he missed 2B on his way to 3B.

[noumpere]

12 minutes ago, wolfe_man said:

I should have thought about that just a second longer.   If he was obstructed between 1st and 2nd, then we'd give him 2nd most likely as the obstructed award - but R1 went on to 3B on his own, so you are correct.  R1 does not get a free pass if he missed 2B on his way to 3B.

On a base hit, third *might be* the correct award (especially if the hit was to right).  R1 still needs to run the bases properly or be subject to appeal.

[maven]

2 hours ago, wolfe_man said:

The obstruction supersedes the missed base, so that's nothing. 

...and that's why we don't want to phrase it this way. OBS does not supersede a missed base.

If the missed base is caused by the OBS, then part of nullifying the OBS will be awarding a touch and thus denying any subsequent appeal of the miss.

Thinking of it this way ties the missed base to the OBS in the right way.