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Posted

Weirdest thing I've every seen (OK, may be a little hyperbole there :) ).

 

PHL vs. Wash., 4/17/15, bottom 7.   Washington batter (Zimmerman) swings, the ball hits the bat down lower on the handle, swing continues and the ball then hits the down near the end of the bat and into the outfield for a bloop single.  The bat did break, but was still whole when the second contact occurred (and if the explanation wasn't obvious, it was still in the batter's hands).

 

http://m.mlb.com/video/v80490683

 

6.05(h) says:  

 

After hitting or bunting a fair ball, his bat hits the ball a second time in fair territory. The ball is dead and no runners may advance. If the batter-runner drops his bat and the ball rolls against the bat in fair territory and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, the ball is alive and in play. If the batter is in a legal position in the batter’s box, see Rule 6.03, and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, a batted ball that strikes the batter or his bat shall be ruled a foul ball;

 

Now I know that there's no way a human umpire can see this and make a call.  But would this play be reviewable?  And if it was reviewed, could it/should it be ruled a foul ball under 6.05(h)?

 

Thanks!

Posted

So the bat basically rolled up the bat?

Play on - the rule you are quoting has to do with the ball on the ground, rolling into the bat.

Reviewable ???

I would call it legal play

Posted

It happens a couple of times a year in the bigs.  All but undetectable in real time on the field.

?? It makes no difference what so ever.

Posted

Thanks all.  I do agree that the original intent of the rule is to deal with a bat on the ground, but that is not explicitly coded, nor is this situation is explicitly excluded.  And yes, it's impossible to call with the naked eye, but replay changes this.  I know if I was a manager and this happened at a critical time I'd probably challenge and/or protest based on the wording of the rule.  So I was really wondering if this had ever been discussed and/or any official interpretations have been proffered.  

Posted

Thanks all.  I do agree that the original intent of the rule is to deal with a bat on the ground, but that is not explicitly coded, nor is this situation is explicitly excluded.  And yes, it's impossible to call with the naked eye, but replay changes this.  I know if I was a manager and this happened at a critical time I'd probably challenge and/or protest based on the wording of the rule.  So I was really wondering if this had ever been discussed and/or any official interpretations have been proffered.  

Even if they did come out with one, my guess / hope is that they'd make it legal.  No one can gain an advantage by intentionally doing it, and the defense hasn't reacted to the first "hit" so they aren't really at a disadvantage.

Posted

As mentioned before, Hunter Pence hit a ball 3 times in the 2012 NLCS. You may want to mute the sound to avoid having to listen to Buck and He-who-shall-not-be-named.

 

Warning: May be painful for Cardinals fans.

 

 

http://m.mlb.com/video/v25441965

  • Like 1
Posted

Yeah...I definitely remember diagramming that. If you're really interested in the technical details, "after hitting or bunting a fair ball" is the key phrase. Pence (in the image below) hasn't yet completed the "hitting" action, so 6.05(h) doesn't apply. Do not confuse with the backswing multi-contact situation, in which case the hitting action is finished before the second point of contact.

 

Pence Play: Ball Belted By Baffling Bifurcated Broken Bat

Pence%2520Brkn.jpg

Posted

Thanks!  Good conversation.  I should really visit the forum regularly as I enjoy this type of rules picadilliea.  :)

 

And to be clear upfront, I'm not disagreeing- I do think this is definitely a no-call situation- but where does the precedent for the definition of the "hitting action" come from?   And has MLB every issued any kind of approved ruling on this?  It does have to be recent, because prior to reply in 2014 there is no possibility of this circumstance ever needing a ruling...

Posted

Thanks!  Good conversation.  I should really visit the forum regularly as I enjoy this type of rules picadilliea.   :)

 

And to be clear upfront, I'm not disagreeing- I do think this is definitely a no-call situation- but where does the precedent for the definition of the "hitting action" come from?   And has MLB every issued any kind of approved ruling on this?  It does have to be recent, because prior to reply in 2014 there is no possibility of this circumstance ever needing a ruling...

I think the fact that they haven't tells you enough on this play.

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