calablue

OBR.....Three runners cross home plate. The second runner fails to touch the plate. If after completion of the play, the defense makes an appeal that the runner missed the plate, do they have to specify which runner it was? If the answer is yes, then if the defense appeals the wrong runner missing the plate, are they allowed to make another appeal naming a different runner as the one missing the plate? (Assume appeals are made properly). I know a second appeal on the SAME runner at the same base is not allowed but I can’t find anything on the above situation, which leads me to believe it is allowed. Thanks

OBR and Babe Ruth / Cal Ripken are the same on the wording also.......shall

I ask because I work mostly Babe Ruth / Cal Ripken, which uses OBR w/modifications an can't find anything in the book on it. I'm starting to see it more often and think it is being used as a stall tactic to eliminate the possibility of starting a new inning due to time limits. Oh well, if it's not illegal it's legal. I guess the league will have to handle it.

In OBR, is there any rule that limits how many times per inning a coach can go out and confer with his defense? I am referring to visits that are not to the mound, do not include the pitcher, and no one goes to the pitcher before the next pitch or play.

Just curious, but if R1 rounded second base hard and then ran into F4; what was the second baseman doing on the short stop side of second base? And I'm not a FED guy but I believe that FED requires an award of one base past the last base touched before the obstruction took place.

OBR 5.11 States that the plate umpire shall call "play" as soon as the pitcher takes his place on the plate with the ball in his possession. Why do you say a batter is required in the box to make a ball live? Is that stated somewhere else in the rules? Am I missing something somewhere?

If the batter interferes with a play at home plate by not vacating the area.

Noumpere, what I should have said was: I'm assuming that because the runner AND the batter did not advance one base, the balk is enforced. And my question should have been: does time get called as soon as F2 fields the ball ( not a passed ball situation ) and if so, then R1 cannot advance past 2B. Is this correct? Thank you for your reply. I think I get it now; The only way that R1 can advance past 2b on the balk (without the batter becoming a runner) is if F1 makes a wild throw or a wild pitch. Is this right?

OK sorry guys. The pitcher balks and continues with the pitch. I can't believe I forgot to put that in there, that was the main idea. I have edited the OP

OBR. No count on the batter, R1 stealing on the pitch. The pitcher balks. The pitch bounces in the dirt and F2 fields the ball cleanly (not a passed ball situation). If R1 continues past second base heading to third, does play continue or is time called as soon F2 fields the ball? I'm assuming that because all runners AND the batter do not advance one base, that time is called as soon as F2 fields the ball cleanly. And the results would be R2 and the batter with no count still. Is this correct?

Yeah, Bad wording on my part.

If the first baseman is the protected fielder and the runner interferes with his attempt to catch the ball, then the runner is out for interference. Since it was a foul ball the batter goes back to the plate and a strike is added or not depending on what the count was. And a runner can be out for interference without actually making contact. I think this is the correct ruling but I'm sure someone will correct me if I'm wrong.

I didn't say it was legal in fed. My statement is that it is not illegal in 0BR. And the OP does not state which rule set,

When did it become illegal for a defensive player to pull something like telling a runner it was a foul ball and he needed to go back, then tagging him for the out? Pay attention to the umpires fellas and don't believe anything you hear from the defense.

Basically yes, though not as extreme as I picture when you say that.

Yeah, well I had a brain fart here. I forgot about the fact that the batter would've been out on the IFF and was trying to figure what will be done if he was past first base at time of throw .

So, if an outfielder is playing way in and would be considered an infielder for the purpose of the infield fly rule, how would it be determined whether base awards should be according to TOT or TOP if the ball fell un-caught and this same player picked it up and threw it out of play as the first play?

I personally have seen feints to second base where the pitcher did not disengage. But my statement was actually in reply to his statement about not being allowed throw to an unoccupied base in general. I realize that it was irrelevant in the OP.

The pitcher is required to step toward second base but is not required to make a throw, so no balk there. And no balk on the throw to third base because the pitcher can throw to an unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play.

So, if I follow this right; w/less than 2 outs, if it's strike 3, the batter is out on strikes and umpire judgment on whether R3 is out due to batter INT?

In regards to the DC trying to make a case for INT., since you said it was a pile of arms, legs and bodies, how could anyone be sure that F1 wasn't interfered with by HIS OWN teammate?

He wasn't stepping. He sort of shifted it up and back so it was on top of the rubber. Why he didn't just start with it on top to begin with is beyond me. Personally, I believe that all good pitchers try to deceive the runner. It's a necessary action to try and keep runners from stealing. But I don't think deception by itself necessarily = balk. Thanks for the input Maven

So "that's a balk, it 's illegal to step with the pivot foot except to disengage." would cover this? IF he was to start his motion with his hands first and then make that small step up onto the rubber without any hesitation, would it be legal since he has committed to pitch by moving his hands? And to clarify, bad choice of words on my part, I meant that he was placing his foot on the flat spot in front of the rubber where many pitchers place their pivot foot. there was nothing wrong with the field.

Can you tell me why???

12U Cal Ripken League, OBR. Right handed F1 pitches from the Set Position regardless of runners on base or bases empty. It's obvious to me that he is very new to pitching. The following description is the motion he uses on every pitch whether there are base-runners or no: He comes to a stop in the set position with his pivot foot in the hole in front of the rubber ( in contact with the rubber), then he raises his pivot foot ( about 1"...just enough to clear the top of the rubber) and moves it backward just enough to step on top of the rubber and delivers the pitch to the batter. He does all this in a continuous motion. I am wondering if anyone has a balk here and what reason you would have. I did not call any balks for the following reasons. **He never came to a 2nd stop. **as stated above, it was always his delivery motion. **There was absolutely no intent to deceive the runner when there was a runner on base. **I don't call a balk if I can't give a reason as to why it is a balk. If he had made the same type move with his foot and then thrown to a base I would have called a balk. So, as described, would this be a balk or not??