Inside Move Quick Question

[Guest Matt]

Why can’t a pitcher use the inside move to get a runner who is attempting a straight steal from 1st?

Baserunners at 1st go when the pitcher lifts that front foot.  Why doesn’t the pitcher just use the inside move, spin around and get the runner at second?

Thanks!

[Senor Azul]

2013 NFHS Baseball Rules Interpretations SITUATION 19: The runner at first base takes off in an attempt to steal second base. The pitcher legally makes a spin move and throws to unoccupied second base to easily retire the stealing runner. The third-base coach argues, saying the pitcher cannot throw to an unoccupied base. RULING: A pitcher may throw or feint a throw to an unoccupied base in an attempt to put out or drive back a runner. The out stands. (6-2-4b)

2013 NFHS Baseball Rules Interpretations SITUATION 20: With runners at first base and second base, the runner at second bluffs a steal of third by running hard to third before he stops and retreats back to second base. The pitcher, seeing the runner take off hard to third base, legally throws to the unoccupied third base. The third-base coach wants a balk called on the pitcher since the runner from second stopped. RULING: A pitcher may throw or feint a throw to an unoccupied base in an attempt to put out or drive back a runner. As long as the umpire judges that it is reasonable for the pitcher to believe he had a play at third, even though the runner stopped, it is a legal move. (6-2-4b)

[Biscuit]

He can, but it's risky. If he completes the inside move, but the runner doesn't go, he has balked.

[alex7]

On 12/27/2019 at 3:44 PM, Biscuit said:

He can, but it's risky. If he completes the inside move, but the runner doesn't go, he has balked.

assming it's still FED,

 

not if the umpire believes the bluff was the reason the pitcher completed the inside move. 

"As long as the umpire judges that it is reasonable for the pitcher to believe he had a play at third, even though the runner stopped, it is a legal move. (6-2-4b)"